Anyway, this thread isn't about whether Russia should have interfered in US elections, but instead about whether they did
And now we at least have definitive proof--as affirmed by Barr, the most biased possible source in the Trump occupancy beside Trump himself--that there was in fact a deliberate and concentrated effort with one specific goal: to put Trump in the WH.
So, no matter what else may be discussed, it is now no longer an open question as to whether or not Russia acted with specific intent. They did. So, barbos, you can no longer hide behind flak regarding general bumfuckery or whataboutism or any of the other nonsense you've regurgitated repeatedly.
No matter what America (or any other country for that matter) may or may not have done, it is no longer a question that Putin acted and did so with the express purpose of overturning our government and placing his own very clearly pro-Putin "asset" into the WH.
So now the questions become, was Trump compromised/blackmailed, or a willing participant, or was he simply a useful idiot? The Barr letter does not tell us much in this regard, only the cherry-picked sentence fragmented that I broke apart in the "
Mueller investigation" thread, partially repeated here:
There's no doubt that Trump has been--at the very least--a carefully watched and likely cultivated Russian "target" for decades. This isn't just my speculation/assertion. These three articles contain the evidence:
Czechoslovakia spied on Donald and Ivana Trump, communist-era files show
Czechoslovakia ramped up spying on Trump in late 1980s, seeking US intel
Will Trump Be Meeting With His Counterpart — Or His Handler?
There's also no doubt that Trump has openly and personally praised Putin numerous times--before and during his presidency--and certainly behaved as if he were under Putin's influence on a multitude of measures that are otherwise inexplicable. Even if it were simply a matter of Trump protecting the interests of a business partner, it still amounts to the same treasonous acts.
As I've argued from the beginning, none of this started with the meeting in Trump Tower, or even the Miss Universe pageant. That was just when I believe this particular phase was started.
And,
again, all we have so far from the Mueller report in regard to "collusion" is this cherry-picked sentence:
[T]he investigation did not establish that members of the Trump Campaign conspired or coordinated with the Russian government in its election interference activities.1
Where "1" is this carefully worded footnote:
1 In assessing potential conspiracy charges, the Special Counsel also considered whether members of the Trump campaign “coordinated” with Russian election interference activities. The Special Counsel defined “coordination” as an “agreement—tacit or express—between the Trump Campaign and the Russian government on election interference.”
So, only in regard to "coordination," apparently, does Mueller make clear that the standard was in regard to an
agreement (i.e., volitional) and that is then further broken down into "tacit or express." Why? And why does Barr even make it a footnote or include that in his summation? And why not the same condition regarding "conspired" (i.e., "tacit or express")?
Regardless, an
agreement is not the question to be answered if we are trying to see whether or not Trump was a Russian asset being used by Putin. It's a question of legal standards, to be sure, but not a question of what actually happened, so if we take out the "coordinated" part and go strictly with the "conspired" part we have:
[T]he investigation did not establish that members of the Trump Campaign conspired with the Russian government in its election interference activities.
Which, likewise, if that were the entire thought and not a cherry-picked one (as the brackets around "[T]he" indicate) merely tells us that Mueller did not have a smoking gun (i.e., could not legally establish) that the "Trump Campaign" and the Russian
government conspired. But without the same clarification of "tacit or express," does this cherry-picking affirm that Mueller could find no evidence of
express conspiring, but could find evidence of
tacit conspiring (which would therefore not rise to the legal standard of "beyond a reasonable doubt")?
Plus, once again, Stone was NOT a part of the Trump Campaign (he was fired after only two months) and he did allegedly conspire with Wikileaks and with Guccifer 2.0, a Russian
hacker, not a member of the
government.
So, once again, we are left with more questions than answers. Indeed, based on the exact same vaguaries Barr cherry-picked, we could easily write:
The investigation established that affiliates of the Trump Campaign conspired with Wikileaks and Russian hackers acting at the direction of the Russian government in its election interference activities.
Or, even:
While we could find no express evidence of conspiring, the investigation did establish that members of the Trump Campaign tacitly conspired with the Russian government in its election interference activities.
Both sentences are perfectly in keeping with everything presented in the Barr letter.