PyramidHead
Contributor
There have to be precedents for speech acts undertaken with the assistance of a third party, where it is understood that the third party is not the one making the speech, but merely the one physically inscribing it on a medium (a cake, a shirt, a sign). If it is legitimate for a custom tee shirt company to refuse to make a tee shirt with e.g. profanity on it, the argument could be made that companies have the right to decide what they can render using their resources even when it's somebody else's speech. However, this would only take the bakers' complaint so far, because the baker presumably wants to refuse to bake a cake for a certain type of customer, not just refuse to bake a cake with a certain kind of speech. For example, he would bake a cake that said "Chris and William" only if Chris was short for Christine and the clients were a heterosexual couple. I don't know if there is legal precedent allowing that kind of discrimination, based on the identity of the client rather than the specific message.
Unfortunately, there are few decisions, well to my knowledge none, where the Court has addressed the free speech rights, if any, in the context of "speech acts undertaken with the assistance of a third party, where it is understood that the third party is not the one making the speech, but merely the one physically inscribing it on a medium (a cake, a shirt, a sign)."
This case is so very important as it presents the Court with an opportunity to provide much needed clarification in this area of the law.
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I suspect it probably is incumbent upon the person asking for the service to show that they have a right to obtain the service from the provider of their choice; they could simply find a sign-maker who is comfortable making signs that say "fuck Red Sox fans" or whatever. It wouldn't be incumbent upon the sign-maker to show that they have the right to refuse to write a particular message, because they probably already exercise similar rights in deciding how many words it can be, how big it is, etc. Yet, even if the court decides that consumers do not have a basic right to readily obtain the creation of a physical message from any service they choose, it still wouldn't preclude them from having a basic right to get a wedding cake from any baker they choose. This might come down to the distinction between activity and identity; if speech is an act that consumers are free to undertake or not, but being homosexual and wanting to marry your partner is an aspect of one's identity, perhaps discrimination on the basis of the one can be defended but not the other. In another context, you could imagine a tee shirt maker refusing to make a shirt that reads "black lives matter", but not refusing to make tee shirts for black people in general. I think this would be legal, but I don't know enough about law to predict one way or another.