The Hebrew scriptures appear to be awash in atoning blood:
• Godfrey, Neil (4 January 2019).
"Why a Saviour Had to Suffer and Die? Martyrdom Beliefs in Pre-Christian Times".
Vridar.
The blood of the martyr atones for the sin of his people -- Deut. 32.43; II Mac. 7.37 f; IV Mac. 1.11; 6.28 f; 12.7 f; 17.21 f; SB, II, 274 ff; 281 f; MidrHL. on 7.9; MidrPr. on 9.2
• Godfrey, Neil (15 January 2019).
"Salvation through a Saviour's Death -- Another List".
Vridar.
[T}he blood of Jewish martyrs was believed to purify and cleanse the nation; the martyrs’ blood led to God’s forgiveness of the sins of the nation and the salvation of all.
Hi, sorry I missed this comment. I appreciate your time and effort in finding these references. I would like to reiterate the point I made above that:
The Levitical background of Hebrews shows that the sacrifice of the one animal is meant to purify the location so God can be present amidst a sinful people. The other Levitical animal here, scapegoat that the sins are placed upon, is not killed, but in fact released into the wilderness, so this isn't a model that can be used to prooftext Christ's death as being responsible for the sin debt being wiped clean.
I don't think anyone is arguing sacrificial imagery is not present. For my historicist reading it is Christ's blood / brutal torture and death that awakens what Paul calls the law written on our hearts and, following Luke, awakens our guilt and hence is a catalyst for our repentance. It may even be awakened guilt that prompted Paul's conversion experience, as he had relatives such as Junia high up in the early Jesus movement he was persecuting = cognitive dissonance.
It is not a question of going back into the Hebrew Scripture and prooftexting this or that, but asking how is the crucifixion/resurrection of Jesus solving a problem. Neil mentioned 4 Maccabees somewhere on this thread regarding the idea of substitution. That's fine, but it doesn't seem to make the best sense of the NT evidence. This is the problem with prooftexting. McGrath comments against the sin debt interpretation:
Yet the New Testament does not use the language of punishment and exchange in the way 4 Maccabees (which was written after the early Christians had already interpreted the death of Jesus in atoning, sacrificial terms) does. Paul can talk about sacrifice (and discussing what sacrifice meant in the Judaism of this time would be a subject of its own), but he prefers to use the language of participation. One died for all, so that all died (2 Corinthians 5:14). This is not only different from substitution, it is the opposite of it. Jesus is here understood not to prevent our death but to bring it about! This fits neatly within his understanding of there being two ages, with Christ having died to one and entered the resurrection age, and with Christians through their connection to him having already died to the present age and thus made able to live free from its dominion. see: https://www.patheos.com/blogs/religionprof/2007/12/whats-wrong-with-penal-substitution.html
This is my argument for Paul: Paul was apocalyptic. He called the resurrected Jesus the "firstfruits" of the general resurrection of souls at the end of the age which had begun in his eyes. In other words, judgment was coming soon. For the people to be judged favorably they needed to repent. The Lukan moral influence interpretation of the cross paints the cross as a tool for making our hidden guilt conspicuous so that we can be convicted by the law written on our hearts and repent. A Carrier/Doherty celestial sin-debt-wiped-clean-cross doesn't accomplish this because how do demons executing Christ in the sky inspire my repentance, and even if my current sin debt is wiped clean what if I sin horribly again (does Christ have to die again?).
So I think Moral Influence is a better interpretation of the cross than Penal Substitution (paying the sin debt), and historicism makes a good case. The cross loses all effect to make manifest my guilty if I don't identify and see in myself those who killed Jesus. The relenting/repenting Roman soldier seems to both function on the individual level I outlined above, and on the societal level with Jesus as Israel and the soldier as Rome, because remember Joel 3 said the nations would be judged for mistreating Israel, so there needed to be societal repentance too. But these are all individual and societal issues grounded specifically in human history, not having to do with Jesus as a great angel never having been on earth and crucified by demons in outer space.
The problem with the view that Paul or the gospels meant to convey a message that we are all guilty and in some vicarious sense responsible for the death of Jesus is that Paul nowhere expresses such guilt himself and doesn't try to tell his converts that they should, either. And it doesn't appear in the gospels, either. Stendahl's piece still holds: --
The Apostle Paul and the Introspective Conscience of the West. (Or my own post on that article:
https://wp.me/p3H3CD-ix9) That's a Protestant interpretation of Paul and the gospels. Paul never expresses any guilt or shame for being even partly responsible for Jesus' death.
The 4 Maccabees reference was not a "proof text" but the expression of a theme that is found throughout the many allusions and tropes in the gospels, as Levenson has
demonstrated at length in his work -- Jesus is presented as a new Isaac whose blood atones for all the sins of his race. But Stendahl's article still applies even here. (As for the Roman soldier's confession at the end of the crucifixion scene, there are reasonable arguments that that little anecdote was introduced into the first gospel as an ironic twist: "So this! was the son of God! What a joke!" Those words were turned into a serious confession by a later evangelist.
Jesus is also the personification of the "new Israel" (or the "church") that emerges out of the mass crucifixions and related deaths of the Jews in 70 CE -- and that idea comes close, even might be interpreted as another expression of, McGrath's point about "participation". That's also very much Paul's idea that is taken from Stoicism: One has to "die" to this world and be "immersed" in the Logos (for the Stoics) or Christ (for Paul) and from there "rise" to join a new community of likeminded persons living a "Logos/Christ" centred life.
But I don't think that any of this tells us about the origins of the idea of Christ and his crucifixion.
The earliest witnesses speak of Christ's death as having some mystical saving effect, however that was done. From that perspective it matters not whether it was an event in heaven, experienced by a spirit being, or on earth by a spirit being, or on earth by a real being. It was entirely a mystical process in its power to save. All sorts of theories spun off from that idea and it was still being wrestled with in the time of Luther and many of us are still reading Paul through Luther's eyes -- as Stendahl points out.