Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:
My father-in-law and mother-in-law were married more than 50 years before they had died. They had residences in New England and in Florida. At some point they sold the house in New England, but before that either of them might have left very early or very late in their migrations back and forth between north and south. They were not living in the same household 100% of the time. Sometimes one or the other would stay a season in one spot to perform some kind of function, like dealing with a family matter or whatever.
Don't respond to the above. I don't want to see you nitpick. It's silly. It's a simple fact that two persons married need not spend 100% of the time in the same residences. You already know this and so please do not respond to this or any of the above. I am just establishing this fact in writing for the record.
Of course that is true they can be married without spending 100% of the time together. In fact, two people can be married and not live together most of the time. However, the question is very different in this context, because absent a marriage contract, then it seems the law considers cohabitation as one of the factors on the basis of which two people would be legally married.
Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:
Here's another example. While I was married to my wife, I was away in college for a couple of years. My primary residence was school and she would visit me most weekends. During the summer I'd stay with her. We "lived together" during the summer. Overall, we co-habitated less than 50% of the year. Again, this is a simple fact that two persons can live together less than 50% of the time, yet still be said to be living together those times. Please do not respond to this with silly semantics. This is a simple fact and added analysis is unnecessary logically.
Sure, they can live together a small fraction of the time. One would not describe those people as cohabiting, though. In fact, if one wants to be precise, what one should say it's precisely that: they cohabit an x% of the time, and do not cohabit a (100-x)% of the time.
Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:
The couple actually did live together in his cottage in the summer, i.e. for an entire season or at least for most of the season since when someone says they summer somewhere they sometimes mean a length of time slightly less than a full season. In this specific case of living together in the summer cottage, it is quite similar to my living together with my wife during the summer.
Actually, it was in July and August.
Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:
She had children from a previous marriage. The ex-husband had rights to see them like Thursday to Monday. So, she stayed with at the new husband's place those days. When they were not together those days, they had dinner together, including the kids most of the time.
The Thursday to Monday morning thing was in winter, and on alternate weeks. That means 3 days every 2 weeks in winter. That's apart from 2 months in summer. That gives you less than 82 days a year. Add to that a few days in the rest of the year, and you
might get to 100 days a year, in the first years of the relationship.
Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:
When they were not together those days, they had dinner together, including the kids most of the time.
Earlier in the relationship, yes, but that is not the same as living together.
Don2 (Don1 Revised) said:
The couple actually did live together the vast majority of the year.
No, it was at best 100 days a year.
But the law says:
https://www.ontariocourts.ca/decisions/2020/2020ONCA0554.htm
ruling said:
29 In this Part,
“spouse” means a spouse as defined in subsection 1(1), and in addition includes either of two persons who are not married to each other and have cohabited,
(a) continuously for a period of not less than three years, …
Section 1(1) defines “cohabit” as follows:
1(1) In this Act,
…
“cohabit” means to live together in a conjugal relationship, whether within or outside marriage[.]
100 or fewer days a year do not amount to 3 years continuously. Sure, there is some leeway if they spend a weekend apart per month or something like that. But not when most of the year they were apart.
That said, even if they had cohabited for 3 years continuously, with him repeatedly saying that he would not marry her without the prenuptial agreement and she agreeing to continue living with him under those circumstances, it would be pretty unjust - though in that case legal - to say they were married and he has to pay.