Stop being deliberately obtuse. Reciting the claim does not qualify as an explanation. Why is the probability of loss too high, when other insured losses are more probable? Why are the claims costs too high on a particular risk when much more expensive things are routinely insured?
Allow me to direct you to the
Casualty Actuarial Society of the US. They have a host of exams that cover this material. It will answer all of your questions, and introduce you to a fairly lucrative career field!
I.e., you don't know the answer any more than laughing dog does.
Ok I'll wear the dunce cap while taking a shot from the hip at this.
First off, I'm not exactly sure what you mean by more probable. so I'm not going to speak on that. with that said, insurance fraud presents a significant financial burden on the insurance industry, contributing considerably to the overall cost of coverage. Taking into account that floods consistently cause the greatest expense in damages each year, surpassing even vandalism, it's hardly surprising that insurance companies are hesitant to undertake the risk.
It's not that these firms lack the will to provide flood insurance, rather, they struggle to find a sufficient number of clients willing to shoulder the steep premiums. The situation is further complicated by government intervention. By subsidizing flood insurance, the government artificially lowers the cost, encouraging risky investments in flood-prone areas.
This makes flood insurance even less appealing for private insurers. Moreover, taxpayers are essentially footing the bill for those risky investments, often without their knowledge. This begs the question: why should private companies subject themselves to such financial exposure?
End dunce Cap Transmission:
Honestly I feel like I'm still wearing the cap.
Edit: Ok I know why I'm still wearing the cap. This has nothing to do with what Bomb#20 asked.