Speakpigeon
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- Joined
- Feb 4, 2009
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- Basic Beliefs
- Rationality (i.e. facts + logic), Scepticism (not just about God but also everything beyond my subjective experience)
I think this qualifies as "clear definitions of 'infinite' and 'past'".
I would also agree that it does "express the common usage of these words".
And, crucially, according to these definitions, an interval of time with no beginning will be infinite.
So, now, anybody thinks s/he can do better? Maybe shorter?
EB
Minor caveat and subtlety here: According to my definitions, you can have intervals without beginning or ending that still count as finite, as long as they are contained within a finite interval of time.
The classic example being a variant of Zeno's paradox: If I perform actions over halving intervals, i.e. for 1 min, for 1/2 min, for 1/4 min, etc. The total interval of time described there would count as finite even though it has no end, because it is contained in a finite interval of time. You could similarly describe intervals with no beginning that would count as finite as well. I thought a little about it, and I think I do want to count those intervals as finite, but I'd be interested in seeing opinions one way or the other.
Yes, and that's a good point.
It also shows how complex our notions can be.
Finite intervals of time like this are just ordinary intervals from which you just remove one or both ends.
And if time is continuous like the Reals, there's a bijection between for example an infinite past in the usual sense and a finite interval of time, however small, that would have no beginning, as long as time is really infinitely divisible like the Reals, which maybe it is not (and quite plausibly, the past is not infinite either).
So, now, you'd have to offer another way to define the notion of infinite past so as to make the distinction with the case above.
Can you do that? You're the specialist here I guess.
EB