mojorising said:
Angra Mainyu said:
As I said earlier, different societies had different names for different sorts of relationships involving sex. Some of those relationships have some legal status. Others did not.
So, I have two questions in this context:
1. What is your evidence that there was a single concept across different societies and languages that corresponds to the concept of marriage that the English word "marriage" denoted in Australia when the laws were drafted?
2. What is your evidence that the word "marriage" used in English today (in Australia) means the same as the word "marriage" used in English in Australia when the laws were drafted?
I don't see the relevance of the questions. You are trying to wriggle out of a common sense definition of marriage on technicalities, which does not achieve anything from the point of view of advancing a sensible discussion.
No, that is not at all what I'm doing. What I'm doing is asking for evidence of claims or implications you made. That you don't see the relevance of the questions does not make them not relevant. They are relevant because
you made those claims and implications, and based arguments on them. I will try again below. But I'm trying to have a sensible discussion. I'm sensibly pointing out that
one of the claims on which you base some of your arguments keeps failing to be supported, and in fact the negation of the claim in question has a lot of support, which is clearly relevant and sensible, but what I get is a denial of the relevance of the point.
mojorising said:
OK so do you think the male-female pair-bonding behaviour exhibited by humans is just a social construct or do you think we are evolved to pair bond?
That evades relevant questions, and would unduly shift the burden.
I'm not a biologist, or an expert in human evolution. As a lay person, I generally accept the findings of science on the matter, unless I have specific reasons to doubt them. As far as I can tell, humans bond in many different ways, as a direct result of adaptations. Pair bonding is not the same as marriage in the sense you call traditional. It may or may not be sexual. It may or may not be heterosexual if it's sexual. And it may not be for life.
But again, that is not the point. You're making a number of claims and arguments. So, if you have links to serious research supporting a claim that you have made, could you please:
a. Post the relevant links.
b. Explain what claim of yours they support.
mojorising said:
I think we are evolved to pair-bond. We also have 'culture' and 'traditions' with ceremonies since we are human.
It stands to reason, then, that if male-female pair-bonding is an inherent feature of being human that almost all cultures will observe a ceremony for the pair-bonding of a couple. Observation of almost all human cultures suggests that is true as we would expect. In English it is called marriage.
Now you jumped from "pair bond" to male-female pair bonding.
But that aside, you claim that those are ceremonies
for the pair bonding of a (male-female) couple. But the fact that there are ceremonies that coincide with some cases of male-female pair bonding does not entail that the ceremonies have the purpose (and ceremonies do have purposes) for the pair bonding of a couple, since:
a. Many pair bondings of heterosexual couples are not linked to any sort of ceremony.
b. The ceremonies that do happen often do not involved any previously existing couple, and what happens is that a woman is forced to go with a man someone else chose for her.
The claim that in English it is called marriage does not seem to be true, either, because:
c. In English, some same-sex unions are (for example) called "marriage" as well, and many cases of pair-bonding are not called "marriage".
d. Even leaving aside same-sex unions, there are plenty of cases of male-female pair bonding that are not called "marriage" in English, and plenty of cases in which there is marriage, but not pair bonding.
Let me present some examples: In England and Wales, prior to 1937,
divorce was severely restricted. But that does not mean that married people always stayed together. Let's say a married man and a woman broke up, and went on to form other straight pair bonds. The latter bonds might be a lot stronger than the first one, but they were not called a marriage.
In fact, even if the first one did not involve any actual pair bonding in the psychological sense, it was still called a marriage.
This is not only what used to happen. Even today, let's say that a straight couple get married in England, but a year later she wants to end the marriage. He refuses. The pair bond is over, but the marriage isn't. And if she forms a new bond with another man, her new relation is not called "marriage", whereas the old one is - even if no more pair bonding exists. In the US, in the past, there was no no-fault divorce, and even until recently, there were places in which a person couldn't get a divorce without the consent of the other person, etc.
In addition to all of that, men and women pair bond in plenty of cases without ever getting married.
If you think I'm talking of irrelevant technicalities, you are missing the point. The point is that
even if it is the case that there some evolved male-female pair bonding in whatever sense you believe there is, the fact of the matter is that the English word "marriage" does not refer to the pair bonding in question; that is, "X is a marriage", and "X is a pair bonding between male and female that humans do as a result of some adaptation" do not have the same referent; in fact, they never have had the same referent in any English-speaking country - not even when the word "marriage" was never applied to any same-sex relationship. So, an objection to the application of the word "marriage" in the case of same-sex couples on the basis of the alleged fact that "marriage" refers to the pair bonding between male and female that humans do as a result of some adaptation, is based on a false claim.
mojorising said:
It is really male homosexual couples being given children that I object to. Women are evolved as natural child-carers so they will provide a more natural environment. Men are also much more likely to sexually abuse a child than a woman. (I am not saying gay men in particular, although I understand that there is actually evidence to support this argument too).
I'll get to the male issue later, but let me ask you about your take on the woman/woman case, since it's unclear.
You do oppose calling any of their relationships "marriage" (the reasons do not stand up to scrutiny, though (see above for some points about the meaning of the word "marriage")). Do you also oppose adoption of children by the woman who is not the biological mother? If so, why?
mojorising said:
I think homosexual men should not be allowed to adopt children until we understand better what causes homosexuality and also based on the higher risk of sexual abuse from males than females.
Also, why would the causes be important? What matters is the effects on behavior, it seems. But let's leave that aside. Here, my question is:
3. Do you also support banning heterosexual men from adopting children?
After all, based on statistics, men are surely more likely to abuse children than females, sexually or otherwise.
If not, why d<m is that gay men are more likely to sexually abuse children than straight men, you would have to provide evidence of that claim. Moreover, even if such a claim were true, that would not be enough, for the following reason: let's say that the probability of sexual abuse of children by women is (statistically speaking) PW, by straight men is PSM, and by gay men, PGM.
Further, suppose you can establish (but you haven't) that PSM < PGM.
Even then, the fact would be that PW < PSM.
So, we get PW < PSM < PGM.
Based on that, why would the increase in risk justify banning gay men from adopting children, but the increase in risk (from women to straight men) would not justify banning straight men from adopting children?