mojorsing,
After repeatedly engaging your points and arguments but getting mostly no response and repetitions of the same points I already debunked, I concluded that you're almost certainly not going to start debating the matter with me rationally. I will post one more reply just in case, but I think it's time for me to leave. It's like talking to a preacher - of course, I think I'm right too, but I address your replies to me (the few you do post, anyway) and your arguments, and I would not ignore any objections to my arguments. If you were to only post those objections, instead of repeating your claims ignoring my arguments.
As it's been repeatedly pointed out, cultural traditions were widely varied, accepting different sort of relationships involving sex, and naming them with different names - some are or were legally recognized, others weren't, etc.
The word "hijacked" is just a rhetorical attack. As for "redefined", you're the one apparently trying to change the definition to exclude same-sex relationships probably already included. But I've already explained that, provided arguments and linguistic evidence, and you just ignore them, and repeat your previous claims.
mojorising said:
Why don't we simply create a new tradition and call it something else?
Why should we redefine "marriage" (which already includes some same-sex relationships)?
You have an agenda of restricting rights and punishing people for behaviors they shouldn't be punished for, and the redefinition seems to be part of your project.
mojorising said:
But with race it has been demonstrated scientifically that it is just surface appearance which means there is no justification for making a distinction.
No, that has not been demonstrated scientifically. In fact, there is very little research on race, perhaps due to fear of a backlash from misguided activists, or perhaps for a lack of interest, or both, or whatever reason.
But moreover, as I already pointed out, even if it had been so demonstrated, it would not have been demonstrated until very recently, and yet before it was allegedly scientifically demonstrated, it would still have been been morally unjustified to take punitive action against interracial couples for PDAs that are accepted among same-race couples, or to ban interracial marriage, etc. But you keep ignoring the points I already made.
mojorising said:
With homosexuals their sexual function is defective (as I and many people would view the situation) so it is not surface appearance. And this also makes it an affront to people who believe that marriage is a heterosexual institution by its definition (which has quite a lot going for it as an arguable position).
But again, that's not the point since:
a. You want to also take punitive action against gay PDA in cases in which you don't do the same with straight PDA, regardless of the sexual orientation of the gay couple. Homosexual orientation and behavior are different things, and even if there may be room for doubt about whether homosexual orientation involves some defect, it's pretty clear that in our species, homosexual behavior per se doesn't (just as, say, masturbation doesn't, and many other non-reproductive sexual behaviors don't).
b. An assumption that homosexual orientation is defective is also not based on sufficient evidence.
c. It would not matter whether their orientation is defective or not. You still would not have a good reason to ban same-sex marriage or to take punitive action against the aforementioned PDA. So, it's a moot point.
mojorising said:
Changing the definition from heterosexual to 'any sexuality goes' is a very major redefinition. If you will not grant this self-evident fact I cannot really afford you as much respect as a debating opponent as I would like to.
No, clearly no one is changing the definition to "anything goes". In fact, you're the one apparently trying to change the definition to exclude same-sex relationships probably already included. But I've already explained that, provided arguments and linguistic evidence, and you just ignore them, and repeat your previous claims.
mojorising said:
This difference is a rational argument for suggesting that a new cultural institution might be a more appropriate avenue of progress than redefining an existing one to make some feel-good political point.
And again, no one is suggesting redefining an existing "cultural institution" in order to make a feel-good political point, but redefining a legal term in order to stop excluding same-sex couples in an unjustified manner. But you keep repeating the same points, after I've replied to them, and ignoring the replies.