Actually, it would be more accurate for him to say that he personally feels that there is no reason to doubt it.
Let's unpack that and use UM's terminology and ontology such that, from now on I will use "mind" to refer to UM.
What the "mind" just stated was that the "mind" has no reason to doubt that it--the "mind"--moves the arm because that is its "clear experience." Yet, previously, the "mind" stated that it instructed the
brain to move the arm via a mechanism the “mind” calls “will”:
The will is part of the mind.
The will commands the brain to move the arm.
These are both assertions of objective conditions. The problem being, that the “mind” has also stated (in its very first post itt no less):
That there may be something objective behind some of the experiences and not others is a subjective hypothesis.
And then later:
The objective is hypothesized, believed to be there.
There is no way to prove using only experience, and that is all that is available, that anything besides experience exists.
In spite of this (from another thread):
I am saying...that it is unlikely the subjective exists without something objective as the cause.
And this:
What is this "evidence" you speak of?
You mean the subjective experience of something?
There is nothing else.
And this:
How do we know about this "evidence"?
All we know are our experiences.
The rest is hypothesis.
And this:
There is no knowledge of the objective.
Only faith it is behind experience.
In contradiction to this:
But here’s a more direct example of the “mind’s” ontology fucking itself:
No amount of experiences of a table will prove the table is there.
Yet, the objection condition of the “will” being “part of the mind” and that it “commands the brain to move the arm” is somehow exempt from this maxim.
And then, of course, this tangle of objective declarations:
Nothing shows the dumb brain as opposed to the smart mind more than sciatica.
The dumb brain senses pressure or some other irritant to the nerve at the level of the lumbar spine as a problem with the leg. It creates the sensation of an injured leg.
Not back pain. Severe leg pain.
The dumb mechanical brain fails in it's duty to inform the mind in this instance.
While of course the smart mind figures out what is really happening.
Which is directly contradicted by this:
It's called a reflex. A stimulus creates a response....The brain does not know what the signal means. It just responds reflexively and translates the signal into something a mind can experience.
So, in the case of sciatica, it translates the signal into “injured leg.” But how could it? And consistently, too? A one-off might be explicable in light of the “mind’s” ontology, but to consistently mis-translate?
And how does the “mind” know it’s not “injured leg” if that’s what it
experiences? Why suddenly does investigation change the experience? Why does figuring out “what is really happening” suddenly transport us from the subjective
experience to the objective condition of "not injured leg, injured back"?
In short, the "mind" is totally full of shit.