Except this law in question does not appear to distinguish between the person and their contracting business.
Sure it does. Axulus explained this to you in post #119.
It restricts what they can do and say about any company tied to Israel,. She might be in violation of the statute, if she posted on her person twitter account anything that was designed to create a negative perception of a companies that did business with Israel.
How?
Here's the text Ms. Amawi was asked to initial, straight out of
Exhibit A from Ms. Amawi's lawsuit:
Pursuant to Section 2270.001 of Texas Government Code, the Contractor affirms that it: 1. Does not currently boycott Israel; and 2. Will not boycott Israel during the term of the contract
As you can see, the text she is asked to initial says "it". Not "she". So how do you figure
she might be in violation of the statute, if
she posted something on her personal twitter account?
This is especially true, b/c the statute is so broad and inclusive to include not merely how she interacts with customers of her company, but "any action" (which includes speech), which is in any way intended to "inflict economic harm upon" "commercial relations with" Israel (which includes personal comments that other people should not support various companies).
Where are you seeing that? Here's
chapter 2270 of the statute. It says:
PROVISION REQUIRED IN CONTRACT. A governmental entity may not enter into a contract with a company for goods or services unless the contract contains a written verification from the company that it:
(1) does not boycott Israel; and
(2) will not boycott Israel during the term of the contract.
Not "she". "It".
The other critical difference is that this statute restricts consumer behavior, rather than restricting the behavior of a company toward potential consumers. If a similar logic were applied to the more general anti-discrimination laws, then the baker would not be allowed to choose not to go to a bar simply b/c it is run by gays, or even to suggest to a friend that they not go to such a bar.
Huh? The state
is the consumer here. If a similar logic were applied to the more general anti-discrimination laws, then the baker would be allowed to boycott gays to his prejudiced heart's content and the school district would simply have to buy a cake for its superintendent's retirement party from some less homophobic baker. Where are you seeing any language in the statute prohibiting the owner from doing anything she pleases outside of her speech pathology business?