I haven't said that prejudiced feelings are morally wrong or unreasonable. I don't think any feelings are morally wrong, nor is it unreasonable to notice patterns and associations. I have prejudiced feelings all the time. If I'm walking alone at night, I'm going to be less anxious if the group of people up ahead is three elderly women rather than three men in their late teens or early 20s.
Why are you less anxious of old women than of young men?
Do you think this is an irrational and bigoted response?
I am less afraid of old women than young men because old women are less likely to attack me in the first place, and because if they did I am far more confident of my ability to overpower them. (I might change my mind if the old women were obviously on drugs--people do fucking violent, crazy, unexpected shit when they are high on certain drugs and they might be armed).
I am struggling to understand why you think I would have called it 'irrational'.
The response is
prejudiced, but I would not say 'bigoted'. It's prejudiced because I'm
pre-judging a group of people based on the characteristics of
some of them, or applying an average when of course there exists individual differences in all groups.
Possibly the problem is that 'prejudiced' has a very unsavoury connotation? Yet it's the only term that fits in this situation.
Women are not somehow wrong to have personal prejudices that make them afraid of men. In fact, I completely understand it. But it's wrong to discriminate against men and form policy on this prejudice. I also find it morally dubious to expect the men who don't pose a risk to alter their behaviour to suit the prejudices of women (or anyone).