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120 Reasons to Reject Christianity

It's not up to Pascal to present all the other choices.
Pascal is presenting a Wager, and he pretends that the odds are in favor of his religion.
This is not the case, though, so if he wants to present an honest Wager, it should account for all the possible results. The truth table for human religion is a lot more than four squares.
 
I just went to go read the actual wager (translated) for the first time. Not the quippy one tossed out by CS Lewis (CS Lewis' Wager), but the actual "Pascal's Wager."


And Lumpy, you should go study that thing. You are tossing out an idea that you think you understand, but a basic reading of the actual source shows that you're arguing something that was not written before (i.e. you made it up, or your preacher did.)

Which is kinda ironic - in a discussion about how often people believe stuff that was never true, especially (and loudly) Christians.
You should really REALLY check out the humor of you arguing something that you made up to prove that people don't just make things up.

You're kind of proving everyone's point here. Hilariously.

Go read that wager. See if it EVER allows for the fact that the god you are to accept could be any old god, with any old features or opinions. Or any old Heaven or Hell.

Hint: you've already been given this answer, but you've rejected it and continued to insist on the "truth" of something that you can just look up and discover is not true. Oh, those zany Christians!
 
Yes.
As I posted in another thread, (or earlier in this one?) Pascal Wager is flawed in so many ways that an enlightenment thinker like him should have seen though them and been able to dismantle it leisurely. The two biggest flaws being the multiple religions and the fact that one might not be able to force oneself to really believe in his heart.

Three main hypothesis remain as to why he wrote that:
- he didn't write it for publication because he knew the flaws (remember it's part of a book published after his death from his notes);
- he wrote it just to be a contrarian (Pascal was known to love playing the devil's advocate);
- he just intended it as a hook/introduction to intrigue his audience, but the real arguments for god would come in later.

None of those are especially flattering for the theists who take the wager at face value and try to use it on us!
 
Should a belief, even if true, be suppressed if it might lead to some harmful consequence?

The practices cited here were not introduced by Jesus Christ. All the above healing religious practices or customs or superstitions existed prior to Jesus, but they were done under different deities or religious institutions, mostly outside Judaism. They prayed and chanted for healing and did various rituals to produce healing.

So what?

So you can't blame "Christianity" that someone chose to bypass standard medical treatment and elected some alternative that ended up failing. That was going on centuries before Christ, and so you cannot blame "Christianity" for it.


Superstitious and ineffective claptrap is OK for those who know no better; but when workable alternatives are available, but are ignored because people have faith, then that faith is actively harmful -- no matter whether it is in Jesus, or in Allah, or in the spirits of the forest.

You are right, if you mean no one should ignore workable medical procedures.

But you are wrong if you extrapolate from this that it's wrong to believe in Christ because some believers mistakenly ignore workable medical procedures because of their belief. One's belief is not falsified, or disproved, by the fact that some believers might make an incorrect choice about a medical procedure.


In the modern world, believing -- in Christ, or in fairies, or in any other non-existent entity is directly harmful.

Fairies and non-existent entities? You score a point for that clever one-liner.

But your pre-occupation with "harmful" shows you have a problem addressing whether one's belief in Christ is true or correct. How is a "belief" judged? Is it by 1) whether it's true or false / correct or incorrect, or 2) by whether it might be "harmful" in some way?

Granted, there is harm if one makes a misjudgment about what medical treatment to choose. But does this harm then disprove their belief?

If the theory of evolution leads some believers in it to then practice eugenicide in order to eliminate defective genes and thus create a healthier race, does that misjudgment on their part then disprove the theory of evolution? Would you say belief in this theory is harmful, and so people should not believe this theory, because it led to this harmful result?

So, because some believers might make a misjudgment about refusing standard medical treatment, it does not follow that it is wrong or incorrect for people to believe in Christ. I.e., it does not follow that their belief in Christ is untrue or false, or factually erroneous.

A belief might be difficult in some ways, even though it's true. But what matters is whether it's true, not what social consequences might be caused by it.

Is your only point that belief in Christ does this harm? You can't show that it is incorrect or false or wrong?

Is it possible that a true belief could lead to some harm in some cases? Yes, that can happen. But it doesn't matter. This could be a case where a true belief might lead to a harmful result. If you can only claim that there is a harmful result, but not that the belief is actually incorrect or false, then you flunk the course, because to pass this course you must give a "reason to reject Christianity." And if you allow that the belief is true, then you fail to give any such "reason" regardless how much "harm" or damage you claim that this true belief might inflict.

The only "Christ" under discussion here is the real existent (not non-existent) historical person who performed healings about 30 AD in Galilee and was executed and then reportedly came back to life. And the only "Christianity" here, to be rejected, is one centered on this historical figure.

At the core of "Christianity" is this historical person and the belief in him because of the power he had, and the possibility of personal salvation, or escape from being annihilated at death by means of that power.

This cannot deteriorate into a petty quarrel over whether those who have this belief are good people or make some bad decisions or did some bad thing or if their belief might lead to some perceived harmful result. It is not necessary to prove that Christians or believers in Christ are morally superior. It could even be that the offer of salvation in Christ actually attracts people who are morally inferior. Even if that is true, it is still not a "reason to reject Christianity."


There was rivalry between the different practitioners and cults so that one faction thought they had a legitimate healing procedure and that the others were fraudulent or evil.

Yes, that's what happens when people don't care to look at the results instead of deferring to the authorities.

But they DO look at the results, and defer only to those "authorities" they believe will produce better results.

I don't think there was any clear pattern, or is even today, to prove which "authority" is the right one or which "science" is always the best one. I don't think we can always trust the AMA or the NEJM, even though maybe they're right most of the time. I think it's been shown that standard medicine was wrong or failed many times.

And some of the alternative schools, like yoga, biofeedback, TM, etc. sometimes worked better for some patients than the official standard procedures. So you can't say which one school is always the true bonafide practitioners and who are the unscientific ones.

And when you condemn someone for making the wrong choice, this is just done with hindsight. It's often "Monday morning quarterbacking" to condemn someone who made a wrong choice for some alternative approach, because after it fails you can say "See, I told you so!" and yet you really did not know beforehand that their approach was going to fail. Standard medicine has failed many times.

At best, all standard medicine can claim is that they usually have some scientific numbers to rely on and so the probability or the stats favor them, or the odds are in their favor. But then again, maybe their method costs ten times as much, and the percentages might favor them by only 10% or 20%, leaving a high risk of error.

So many of these cases you're complaining about are really only a judgment call, and not a clear case of someone rejecting science in favor of superstition.

It's not true that's there's any rash of bad choices, or epidemic of them, of patients dying because they chose an alternative to conventional medicine. We can rely on people generally to make the best decision about what's in their self-interest. It is arrogant for an outsider to interfere in this and condemn someone for their choice simply because it turned out not to be successful.


All that is described in the above websites about someone withholding medical treatment and relying instead on their spiritual or religious source for healing is something that predates Christ and was not introduced into the world as a result of Christianity. You cannot blame Christianity for practices that were already going on prior to the first century AD.

No, but I can and do blame Christianity for practices that are still going on, explicitly in the name of Christianity, today.

No more than YOU could be blamed for them if they were done in your name. Are you guilty of something someone else does because they claim to be doing it in your name?

Why are they doing it "in the name of Christianity"? Why not some other name? Answering this question is more important than blaming someone because they made a different choice than you would have made and so judging them as morally inferior to yourself. Even if you're right that you're morally superior to them, it still is not important.

Assuming there is overall net harm done by these practices, which you have not demonstrated (alternative non-conventional medicine is not always wrong, though it may be in some cases), how is "Christianity" to blame, or how is Christ to blame, that those engaging in these much earlier practices then chose to do them in Christ's name, beginning from the 1st century?

Why did these practices suddenly begin to be attributed to Christ at this time, and how does this switch from earlier pagan gods to Christ mean that now he or "Christianity" becomes guilty of something thought to be wrong about these practices which did not originate from Christ or from "Christianity"?

It's not wrong for these alternative methods to exist. But it's wrong to condemn them all just because in some cases they didn't work. Conventional medicine also doesn't work in many cases. Plus it's so much more expensive.


There were hundreds or even thousands of legitimate medical procedures used, which had some benefit and could even save lives, and there were cults which practiced different methods than the legitimate ones and refused to patronize them. No doubt thousands or millions of sick people died who could have benefited or recovered if they had been able to find treatment by the legitimate medical procedures, but who instead chose methods that were ineffective.

Yes. And now that we know better, there is no excuse for not doing better than that . . .

But we ARE doing better. It has improved, but standard medicine is still sometimes ineffective. There is nothing wrong with having the alternatives to conventional medicine.


-- and yet many people use religion as just that excuse.

An "excuse for not doing better"? Who doesn't want to do better? You think patients want worse outcomes? How could anyone be looking for an "excuse" to do worse and get worse outcomes? You accuse someone of NOT WANTING BETTER results simply because they made a misjudgment?

Hardly any religious people forego conventional medicine that is proven. It's the less proven and less reliable procedures that they're suspicious of. It's precisely because they do want better results that they turn to the alternatives.


This kind of behavior can be described as mistaken or just unlucky because one resorts to a solution that does not work instead of one that would have worked.

No, not mistaken or unlucky - wilfully ignorant and harmful.

No, when the conventional methods fail, is it wilfully ignorant and harmful by those doctors who chose those methods? You can't condemn someone for making a good-faith choice that turns out to not work. When a surgery fails, is the surgeon to be condemned for choosing to be ignorant and wilfully doing harm?


There is no proof that the accepted medical procedure is always right and the spiritual methods wrong.

Yes, there is. Indeed the entirety of modern medicine is exactly that. Every single issue of any one of hundreds of medical journals is proof of this.

The medical journals are not a totally objective source of information on this. They have a vested interest in promoting the standard conventional procedures.


There is so much proof, it is hard to know where to start; there is enough proof that you couldn't hope to read it all in one lifetime. It is beyond embarrassing that anyone could seriously make such an ill-informed statement as "There is no proof that the accepted medical procedure is always right and the spiritual methods wrong."; The definition of "accepted medical procedure" is that it is demonstrated to work.

Not always. There are plenty of standard medical procedures that have less than 50% chance of working, and yet they're done anyway, because they increase the chances by a small percentage.

Some of these may not be worth the extra cost. There's much subjectivity in these decisions. It's not pure science, but a certain degree of luck and guesswork. And not all doctors do the same procedures.

There are some hospitals and MDs who are encouraging some alternate methods now. They know that the conventional methods are not always the only approach.


In any case, Christ did not introduce this problem into the world. It was going on long before he appeared on the scene.

Christ may well not even have ever existed. I am not blaming Christ for this shit - I am blaming CHRISTIANITY. And that includes you.

Well you're really off topic here. Or you're slopping your way into a line of "reasoning" or rather "emoting" which has no relevance to anything.

I have to make this clear: Claiming that certain "Christians" or believers in Christ are bad people and did something wrong is NO "REASON to reject Christianity."

This ad hominem kind of emoting, or arguing from emotional outburst, really has nothing to do with the basic claim of the truth of Christianity.

Here is the basic claim: Christ was a person in history who had power, which he demonstrated, so there is evidence (not proof) that he had this power, and because of the nature of this power, if it is extensive enough, it could be a source of eternal life, which he spoke of, and all he required was that people believe in him, or believe in this power he had.

(For now I'm skipping over the theme of "sin" and "forgiveness" as part of the basic core, because it was not something new that Christ introduced.)

This is pretty much the basic narrative which lies at the center of "Christianity" or all the different forms of believing in Christ. This is what the "reasons to reject Christianity" need to address, not petty immature bickering over some Christians who did something bad or are morally deficient or less righteous than someone else and so on. It's a total waste of time to quarrel over who is more righteous or whether some Christians should be scolded for this or that naughty act.

Obviously Christians have done some bad things, and it would be a worthless endeavor to try to defend against every petty complaint, or even major complaints, leveled against all the believers.

So these kinds of petty ad hominem arguments are not really part of the discussion. The basic core Christ narrative says nothing about the believers in Christ being morally superior, so the accusations that they are not righteous enough or have moral flaws are off point. Those complaints need to be directed toward someone who claims that Christians are morally superior. Traditional "Christianity" or Christian teaching does not claim this.


Christianity does direct and demonstrable harm to the world. It should stop doing that.

And YOU should stop doing the harm that you're doing. And so should the Girl Scouts stop doing the harm they're doing. There's probably not one person or group or class of people that hasn't done some harm in the world, and whatever harm they're doing -- they should stop it!

But what does that have to do with whether Christ had/has power to give eternal life? If you're saying your complaint is irrelevant to that question, then it's also irrelevant to any "reason to reject Christianity" which is the topic here. Petty complaints about some bad behavior done in the name of "Christianity" and which were done in the name of Asclepius centuries before "Christianity" even existed has virtually nothing to do with any "reasons to reject Christianity."

I am trying to disagree with the "reasons to reject Christianity" -- but this doesn't mean I'm claiming Christians never did anything harmful, or don't have to stop whatever harm some of them may be doing -- is that what this has degenerated into? Preaching that some Christian did a bad thing somewhere and they should stop it?

The "reasons to reject Christianity" argument should not degenerate into a schoolyard quarrel among kids pointing at each other and accusing each other of doing something naughty.


These cultists today who refuse standard medical treatment would probably be doing so in the name of some other god than Christ, if the Christian cults were not available to them. It is not Christ or Christianity that is to blame for any wrong decisions they made.

They say it is Christianity that guides their (poor) decisions. Nobody else knows what the fuck they are thinking, but there seems to be no reason to assume that they are lying.

It doesn't matter what they're thinking or if they're lying. What matters is that all this would be happening anyway, even if Christ or "Christianity" had never existed. The harm you claim is happening would be happening anyway. This is not a phenomenon that you can attribute to Christianity.

And their belief is not disproved by showing that a believer did something wrong. Anymore than belief in evolution is disproved because someone, e.g., a eugenicist, did something wrong in following evolution theory.


Mistrust of doctors and medical science was not introduced by Christ or the church. The Christian church generally, or mainline Christianity, has not ever recommended avoidance of standard medical care.

Yes, it has. By claiming that prayers are answered, you imply that other actions are not needful;

No you don't. "Praying" is something people do as a last resort, when nothing else seems to work. Or when the medical procedures have done all they can. It's done in addition to the other actions.

or that time and effort that could be spent doing something useful should instead be wasted in prayer.

No, the "prayer" is done only when the "something useful" actions have been exhausted. Not "instead" of them.


There are lots of mistakes in medical care and many occasions for blaming someone AFTER it is discovered that this or that procedure would have produced better results. It's easy to point the finger at this or that culprit AFTER we see a bad outcome. It is petty to take this general problem of human society going back to the beginning of civilization and use it as a debating point to bash Christianity.

Not just Christianity - religion in general. Christianity is the current manifestation of this ugly, stupid and dangerous behaviour, . . .

But when a standard-procedure operation is performed, according to the book, and it fails and that patient dies, was that treatment also an example of "ugly, stupid and dangerous behaviour" on the part of the doctor? Why not?

The harm from the unnecessary high costs of much conventional medicine is actually more ugly and stupid and dangerous than the minor harm due to avoidance of mainline medical care because of superstition or religion or alternative methods.


. . . and it is absolutely not 'petty' to bash the crap out of an organisation that exists to promulgate ideas that directly harm people.

You mean your ideas?

Again, you've not shown any noteworthy harm. The harm done by abuse of meds and by malpractice and high costs and over-treatment and medical mistakes is vastly greater than any harm from this thing you're bashing. It's good that conventional medicine loses some patients because of this competition. The ones who need conventional medicine will get it -- the few who seek alternatives do so because standard practitioners have fallen short, and there are some bad practices that undermine the confidence of consumers in the medical establishment, which needs to clean up its act. This is where the most harm is.


That some other religion was (or is) just as bad is no excuse at all.

There is no "just as bad" here. Christianity has done nothing "bad" just because some ancient practices shifted and attached themselves to this new Jewish Christ cult. This "bad" thing, which really wasn't so bad, was already happening and cannot be blamed on Christianity.


I haven't even started on religious persecution of adults, religious wars, any activity by non-Christian sects.

Wars and persecutions were going on long before Christ and the church. If there had been no Christ or church around, they would have done the same in the name of something else.

But they actually did it in the name of Christianity. If they had done it in the name of something else, then I would be opposing that 'something'. But they didn't.

What if they did it in YOUR name -- they commit a heinous crime and do it in YOUR name. Are you to blame for that crime?

By your logic, a criminal could get away with any crime by just saying, "I did this crime in the name of [whatever]," and then the cops would go after the whatever and ignore the culprit.

And you would impose no penalty onto those parents who withheld treatment from their child -- and the child dies as a result -- because you blame their religion and not those parents?

And because it was "in the name of" that belief that this bad result happened, that belief must be suppressed even though it might be true? You concede that it might be a true belief, but still it must be suppressed because it's dangerous? Even if it's true, still it must be suppressed and people prevented from holding that belief?


But even if we accept, for the sake of argument, that 'faith' as a means to gain healing or salvation began with Christianity, that still doesn't change the fact that it is completely ineffective . . .

The healing acts of Christ were effective.


Explaining this new "faith" element would be helpful. But not rehashing the ancient problem of what healing procedure should have been tried instead of this one that failed. If you want to bash Christianity, find something unique to it, or something that began with Christ, and which you think led to disaster.

Why? You don't get to do harm with impunity because others are doing it; or because someone else did it first.

Impunity? Who is it you want to punish for violating your doctrine that only treatments that ended with a good result were justified? a doctor who performs standard treatment and the patient dies anyway? What's his excuse? Others did the same thing?

Why don't you address our topic "reasons to reject Christianity" rather than preaching your moral superiority to some Christian because their belief is different than yours? or because they are guilty of a misjudgment? Even if you're right in 1 or 2 of these cases and you really are morally superior to them because they guessed wrong, that is not a "reason to reject Christianity."

Everything you're complaining about were problems, or alleged problems, BEFORE Christianity even existed. So you only THINK you're bashing Christianity, but you're not. All you're bashing are some practices that were already in existence prior to Christianity.


I do want to bash Christianity -- because it is currently killing children.

No more than the certified MD who uses standard medical procedure and the child dies anyway. That doctor is "killing" children? Why are you so eager to accuse someone of killing if you can connect it somehow to "Christianity"? Why does someone's belief in Christ enrage you so much that you need to find some crime to pounce on them for?

Let's assume you're right that there are a few isolated cases where some Christian parents wrongly withheld treatment from their child -- if they did this in YOUR name, then you would be the killer of that child? Anyone can turn someone else into a criminal by committing the crime and then saying they did it in that other person's name?

In your clumsy fixation on bashing "Christianity" you're striking out even worse than that guy who "couldn't hit a bull in the butt with a banjo":

stike one: You're saying a homicide, or killing is going on, even though these cases are mostly judgment calls. It's not true that the standard conventional costly treatment is always right. Your insistence on this is YOUR religion which you're trying to impose onto everyone. They are not "killing" children just because they made a different choice than you would have and the patient died. Even if there's provable negligence in some rare cases, in most cases it's a judgment call, and the rage doesn't come until AFTER the bad result took place. Again, sometimes the conventional treatment also fails.

strike two: When they make a wrong choice, it is not "Christianity" that is to blame, anymore than YOU would be to blame if they did it in YOUR name. Rather, it's those parents who made the choice who are responsible. Refusing medical treatment is not something "Christianity" introduced into society. It's those particular parents who made the choice and whoever advised them who might be to blame or who made a wrong choice, not Christianity.

strike three: Even if a choice was wrong, and even if there's a disaster as a result, a belief is not disproved simply because a believer made a misjudgment about something. Even if that belief contributed to the wrong choice, it doesn't disprove the belief. Anymore than a wrong action by a eugenicist disproves the Darwin evolution theory that led to the wrong action.


You don't get to say "But other cults are killing children, so it's not fair to pick on us".

No, there are no cults "killing children" here. The parents make the choice, not the cult. Your dogmatic ideological commitment to your theories about medical treatment, and your rage against some cults or against "Christianity" does not justify making accusations of homicide. Where is this rage when the standard costly conventional treatment is followed and the child dies?


You don't get to say "People killed children before our cult even started, so it's not fair to pick on us".

You don't get to scapegoat someone and accuse them of murder based on your ideology and the possibility that a decision made might have proved wrong when viewed from hindsight. Scapegoating "Christianity" instead of addressing what's really wrong might be easy, but it doesn't make anything better. You yourself are "killing children" if you persist in this scapegoating and detracting from fixing responsibility and accountability properly. Children die as a result of this rage and irrational unproductive scapegoating that you're engaging in.

If some Christian made a wrong decision, then that individual might be to blame, but it is immature and petty to accuse "Christianity" of killing children because of some possible mistake or misjudgment in a medical decision.

You can't impose onto everyone your dogma that the conventional medical treatment has to ALWAYS be the right one no matter what. If a wrong choice was made, it doesn't mean someone is guilty of homicide, despite your desperation to find something to bash "Christianity" for in order to make yourself feel morally superior.


Your religion, like everything else, is judged on its results.

Conventional medical treatments sometimes produce harmful results. Sometimes they even literally KILL the patient.


Needless deaths of children are not an acceptable result under any circumstances.

Including when caused by conventional medical treatment, or when conventional treatment fails.


Whining about being picked on for killing children . . .

Yes, like when conventional medical treatment was tried and failed and so the doctors whine that it wasn't their fault.


. . . because others [e.g., other doctors] are doing, or have done, the same . . .

And the same treatment sometimes worked before, and sometimes not.


. . . is one of the most disgusting pieces of snivelling, filthy, and downright despicable behaviour I can imagine.

Calm down.

Don't be too tough on those snivelling filthy disgusting MDs who tried their standard medical procedure that didn't work in a particular case and who whined that it wasn't their fault. It usually works. Don't accuse them of murdering that child just because it didn't work in that one case (and 2 or 3 others).
 
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So you can't blame "Christianity" that someone chose to bypass standard medical treatment and elected some alternative that ended up failing.
Can we if the Christain faith they're in teaches them that relying on doctors to treat their children shows they lack faith in the God who can miraculously heal them?
 
What is not reliable about the gospel accounts?

Even more importantly why does it matter when the stories came out?

You know why. Perhaps you are disturbed that in virtually all the other cases of miracle stories, prior to the invention of printing, the time difference between the actual alleged events and the reports of them is more than 100 years, and often several centuries, as in the case of Gautama.

There's one alleged miracle worker, the emperor Vespacian, for whom the miracle reports are contemporary. However, in this case the one being mythologized is someone who was deified and was famous BEFORE the reported miracle event(s) happened.

So in the very few cases where the event is close to the reports of it, the one reportedly doing the acts is already famous or has a long reputation going back over several decades and the miracle stories are added onto an already colorful career.

But in one case only this pattern is broken. The Christ miracles are reported only a few decades later, in documents (and we don't know how much earlier in oral reports), and the one being mythologized is an unknown (unless you rely on a few gospel reports which say his fame spread widely in the region, in which case you're relying on reports which give these miracle events as the reason for his fame).

So Jesus is the ONLY reputed case of a miracle worker who had no previous reputation to which miracle stories could be added and the written accounts of whom appear within only a few decades after the events.

You cannot deny the uniqueness of this one case. Can you explain it? Doesn't there have to be an explanation for this?


A quick trip to Snopes dot com is all it takes to come face to face with the incredible proliferation of hoaxes people have created even in modern times and which gullible people believe.

I acknowledge that the time lapse between the reports and the actual events becomes a different matter in modern times, even before the Internet, because of the vast new means of communication, beginning with the invention of printing. Every reported case has to be considered one at a time.

Also, my point is not that there are absolutely no legitimate miracle events other than those of Jesus. If the evidence is there, in a few cases, then there may be some truth to it.

The historical record shows that the mad monk Rasputin had some kind of strange power to heal at least one child of an apparent blood disease. But it's clear that Rasputin's power was very limited.

And the real cases, the ones that can be documented, are a tiny minority of the many cases, most of which are probably hoaxes. Every case has to be considered individually.

It is not "gullible" to believe what the evidence shows.


The crap they write about in National Enquirer is every bit as credible as the crap contained in the canonical gospels and the people who wrote it can be identified and their sources can be interrogated.

So you lump them all together and just assume they are all hoaxes and disregard the evidence, no matter what?

There can't be a few exceptions where the reported event really did happen? or is at least partly true?

Is there a miracle-worker reported in the National Enquirer who has or had similar power to heal as Jesus described in the gospel accounts? And is the evidence just as credible? You have examined that evidence and have found that there are no reported cases of this healer being unable to heal someone who was brought to him? I.e., there are no reported cases of "misses" but only "hits"?

Which case is that? Can you name who this healer was? Or did he do other "miracles" that are of a similar nature, i.e., showing a super-human power of some kind? What is the best case of this? You say there are others just as credible as the Jesus accounts. So give an example of one. Which is the best example?


The fact that people believed these bullshit stories offers absolutely nothing of value when it comes to determining whether or not the stories were true.

Wrong, it does offer value. Our historical record comes from witnesses who report the events and believed them. There is very little in the historical record that does not come from someone who reported the events because they believed they happened. The reported events, in documents (which is what the "gospel" accounts are), are accompanied also by archaeological finds, but these latter are few by comparison and tell us much less about the actual events than the documents tell us.

It's OK to say that we need extra evidence or testimony in the case of something weird or super-normal, but it's not OK to say that any such reports as these are automatically rejected as false, regardless if anyone believed them. That is arbitrary and dogmatic and unscientific.


Here's how real historical criticism works:

* The more fantastic the claim the more physical evidence it takes to make it credible.

We don't have any "physical evidence" for most historical events. Unless you mean documents that are discovered. We do have more of this documentary evidence for the miracle acts of Jesus than we have for many of the recognized historical events.

Nevertheless, I agree that extra evidence is required for such events as this. So for normal events, one source alone is often sufficient. While for miracle acts it requires more than one source, or more than two.

There is no scientific or objective criterion for prescribing the exact number of sources that is required.

If you maintain that the evidence for these events is not sufficient to be included as facts of history in standard history textbooks, I don't disagree. These unusual events in the N.T. belong in a category of many historical events that are reported as doubtful, or events that cannot be verified sufficiently as proven facts, but which nevertheless may be actual historical events -- and they are put into the unknown category, as possibly true but doubtful.

Much of the historical events are in this category. Was King Arthur a real king? Are the exploits of William Tell for real? How much of the Rienzi character is real, and how much imaginary? etc. Obviously there are many legends and fictional elements mixed in with the facts, but also normal events which cannot be verified with certainty, where some details, even important ones, are in doubt.


* The more a story disagrees with the historical record the less likely it is to be credible.

Of course. But "the historical record" is simply the entire collection of all the reported events in all the documents. The N.T. is included as part of these documents, or as part of the historical record. You cannot arbitrarily exclude any documents from the historical record. You can say some are more reliable than others, but you have to include them all.

Even Homer and Virgil are part of the historical record. Every document has its proper place in the record, and some are taken more literally than others, some given more credibility. But all are included, none is arbitrarily excluded because of some dogmatic bias against it or because someone is on an ideological vendetta against that particular source.


* The more the perpetrators of a story have an obvious political or religious agenda the more skeptical one should be in accepting the story at face value.

Of course. And virtually all of them do have such an agenda, and the more this agenda shows itself, the more skeptical we should be. However, even in a biased source we can read between the lines and glean the truth, or make a good speculation. So you cannot exclude a source even if it is very biased. Rather, you take into account this bias and still look for what truth we can get from it that would not be tainted, or is less tainted, by that bias.


* The more independently a story is corroborated the better a chance the story has credibility.

It depends on what you mean by "independently." There is nothing wrong with a source relying partly on earlier sources. This actually increases the reliability. It makes it more certain that this source is not inventing its own private version of the facts, but is trying to stay in keeping with the earlier reports.

There is nothing less credible about a source which relies partly on earlier sources while also adding its own unique contribution that is separate from the other sources.


The gospel narratives contain extremely extraordinary claims backed up by absolutely no physical evidence.

Again, there are many facts of history for which there is no "physical evidence" other than the documents that report these facts.

Since the claims are extraordinary it is reasonable to require additional sources. But to require "physical evidence" which is not required for other historical events is an unreasonable demand based only on a dogmatic prejudice against such events being possible. You cannot reasonably require a higher quality of evidence. Rather, you can demand some extra evidence that is the same kind or the same quality of evidence as is required for the ordinary events or claims.


The gospel narratives disagree in many places with known information about the times and places uncovered over the years through scientific disciplines.

Usually on minor details only. Most of the accepted histories of the period also contain disagreements or discrepancies. There are contradictions even within the writings of the same historian.

There are a few major details in the gospel accounts where there is a discrepancy problem. But these are generally found in only one of the gospel accounts. Such as the star over Bethlehem. This does not undermine the credibility of Matthew generally, for the general account of what happened.

You need to give us 1 or 2 of the best examples of these disagreements with known information. You're probably thinking of some minor detail that is not important. Give an example.


They also disagree with each other, making it impossible for more than one to contain the truth.

Where there's a contradiction on a minor detail, of course only one could be correct on that particular point. There is a discrepancy about the two prisoners crucified alongside Jesus, but that's just a detail.

The accounts all "contain the truth" generally of what happened, despite the minor discrepancies. We can identify the less reliable parts or which reported events or words are incorrect. Or, where it's doubtful or we can't make a good judgment, we can just put it in the doubtful category. Even if large portions are doubtful as to the particular details, it still doesn't mean that the general portrayal of Jesus or general description of events is unreliable.

I believe the Barabbas story is confused, but something about it is correct, and we can figure out what really happened, or make a good guess. And even though the truth might differ from what is presented in the accounts, still there is probably some truth in the story of the exchange, where Barabbas is released and Jesus is condemned instead. So there is a true narrative of what happened mixed in with the confused part.


The gospel narratives contain extremely focused religious agenda.

OK, but that doesn't mean there's no credibility to them. That should be plural "agendas" because the writers or redactors did not all have the identically same agenda. You cannot dismiss an account just because the writer had an agenda. It's fine to try to identify the agenda and determine what inaccuracy this might cause. It does not mean the whole account is unreliable.


The gospel narratives are not corroborated by anything independent of themselves . . .

What corroboration do you want? There IS some corroboration on some points. I already mentioned that Josephus confirms that John the Baptist was beheaded by Herod Antipas. There is also corrobation that Pontius Pilate ordered Jesus to be crucified. And there's additional corrobation on some events. What additional corroboration do you demand?


. . . and no serious scholar dares suggest that the various people involved in their production weren't heavily influenced by each others' work.

Yes, that has been acknowledged, and what's wrong with that? They did rely on earlier sources. It's good that they relied on earlier sources, instead of them each just inventing their own private fictional accounts. We see some of the reliance, in Mt and Lk relying on the earlier Q source, which is lost. There's nothing wrong with them relying on that earlier source.

What kind of "influence" from another's work do you think makes them unreliable? Give an example.


Long story short, the gospel narratives fail miserably in every category.

What is the failure you see? Name one category and explain how any of them "fail" the test of credibility as far as giving us a generally correct portrayal of Jesus and what happened.

Again, these accounts would not be included in a school history text and presented as factually established or proved historical facts. Rather, they are in a doubtful category and could be mentioned as reported facts that cannot be verified, and which may or may not be true. They have a proper place alongside many other reported historical events that cannot be established with certainty.


They are believed in solely for religious reasons, not because they are substantiated in any objective way.

They are more substantiated than they would be if the evidence for them was as meager as in the case of all other reported miracle events or wonder-workers or hero figures. And they are substantiated more than many historical events for which there is only one source.

You cannot dogmatically exclude facts solely on the grounds of a connection to religious elements. An anti-religious bias is no more objective as a basis for identifying the truth than a pro-religious bias.


An objective substantiation would be one that would only apply to the gospel narratives and would exclude competing religious traditions.

You mean a source that confirms events in the gospel accounts and has no connection to any Christian belief about the events?

The best examples of this are:

a mention of Christ by Suetonius writing about 122 AD, who mistook Christ to be a Roman who was causing disturbances among the Jews in Rome during the reign of Claudius;

a mention of Christ by Tacitus, writing about 115 AD, referring to the execution of Christ and naming Pontius Pilate as giving the order;

a mention of Christians by Pliny the younger in a letter to Trajan, about 112 AD, concerning what to do with them and about executing some of them;

mention in Josephus of the execution of John the Baptist, which agrees with the gospels in general, but not in some details;

mention in Josephus of Jesus "who was called Christ," and naming him as the brother of James.

Probably a reason there are so few references is that Jesus was active publicly for less than 3 years, very likely even less than one year. Virtually all "famous" characters in history had to be doing something for a much longer time than this in order to gain a mention in mainline history documents.

How many other characters in history are mentioned even once in the established history record whose public life was this short?
 
The existence of Yeshua ben Yosef who became the Messiah is not a part of the 'established history record.'
Even if the man himself happened to have existed during the time of the events, and this has not been established, nor have any the miraculous events described in the Gospels been established. To hold a belief that the existence of the man, the Man as the Messiah, and that the miraculous events described in the Gospels is true and accurate as described, is purely a matter of faith.
 
Probably a reason there are so few references is that Jesus was active publicly for less than 3 years, very likely even less than one year. Virtually all "famous" characters in history had to be doing something for a much longer time than this in order to gain a mention in mainline history documents.

How many other characters in history are mentioned even once in the established history record whose public life was this short?

How many of these “other characters” are you claiming to be The one and only God? Your purported God sure has a funny way of revealing itself, and seems to let the humans do most of his talking for him, BS and all. Seems like it prefers to play hide-and-seek more than anything else…
 
But your pre-occupation with "harmful" shows you have a problem addressing whether one's belief in Christ is true or correct. How is a "belief" judged? Is it by 1) whether it's true or false / correct or incorrect, or 2) by whether it might be "harmful" in some way?

It is judged by both, obviously.
If it is true and harmless, no one is going to care much, and some might join.
If it is not true, and harmless, no one is going to care much if they even notice.
If it is true and not harmless, it would be best to believe it but not act on it.
If it is NOT true and NOT harmless, it needs to be stamped out.



I have to make this clear: Claiming that certain "Christians" or believers in Christ are bad people and did something wrong is NO "REASON to reject Christianity."
Interestingly, one of the reasons I find Christianity and the very veracity of a Jesus or god not believable is that it appears to do nothing to improve its followers. One would think that a god bent on improving its children would be able to have some effect on them if they are believers.

But here you are arguing that believers are no more or less able to avoid harm than non-believers.

So what’s the point in belief? Nothing. What’s the point in the rituals, the bible, the concepts? You seem to be saying, “zero point. People will be people and make the same bad judgments whether they believe or not. Being Christian does not affect your behavior.

So, yeah, noticing that Christianity has no power to improve people actually is a reason to reject it as being not even true..
I do want to bash Christianity -- because it is currently killing children.

No more than the certified MD who uses standard medical procedure and the child dies anyway. That doctor is "killing" children? Why are you so eager to accuse someone of killing if you can connect it somehow to "Christianity"? Why does someone's belief in Christ enrage you so much that you need to find some crime to pounce on them for?

What? No. Much more than an MD who is trying but fails. These people are rejecting and avoiding efforts to try. How can you consider that equal to trying but not succeeding? That’s the very problem with Christianity, it instructs its followers to do stupid dangerous things on purpose. It’s not a passive thing here, it’s actively trying to prevent standard medical procedures.
You know why. Perhaps you are disturbed that in virtually all the other cases of miracle stories, prior to the invention of printing, the time difference between the actual alleged events and the reports of them is more than 100 years, and often several centuries, as in the case of Gautama.

There's one alleged miracle worker, the emperor Vespacian, for whom the miracle reports are contemporary. However, in this case the one being mythologized is someone who was deified and was famous BEFORE the reported miracle event(s) happened.

So in the very few cases where the event is close to the reports of it, the one reportedly doing the acts is already famous or has a long reputation going back over several decades and the miracle stories are added onto an already colorful career.

But in one case only this pattern is broken. The Christ miracles are reported only a few decades later, in documents (and we don't know how much earlier in oral reports), and the one being mythologized is an unknown (unless you rely on a few gospel reports which say his fame spread widely in the region, in which case you're relying on reports which give these miracle events as the reason for his fame).

So Jesus is the ONLY reputed case of a miracle worker who had no previous reputation to which miracle stories could be added and the written accounts of whom appear within only a few decades after the events.

You cannot deny the uniqueness of this one case. Can you explain it? Doesn't there have to be an explanation for this?

This is kind of cute. Let’s draw the line at what is believable, say, oh, where shall we draw the line? Oh! I know! Let’s draw it where it includes my miracle worker and not yours! See? Now look, my miracle worker passes my test, isn’t that magical!? We’ll says 4 and 6 decades is okay and 10 decades is not. Come on, you with me on this?

LOL. No, let’s draw the line at “no one who met him or witnessed his miracles wrote anything at the time of meeting him or witnessing miracles.” Let’s draw the line at “zombies rose from their graves and no one was moved to make a note of that.”

The only “pattern” that is broken is the one you devised to be a pattern. It’s not a pattern. Vespacian is your best bet as a god because he was deified in his life! Why do you reject that break in the pattern? Huh? It’s a MUCH better source!

Seriously, you have to admit that devising a “pattern” such that only your deity breaks it results in a pretty contorted “pattern” that is not particularly robust.

Probably a reason there are so few references is that Jesus was active publicly for less than 3 years, very likely even less than one year. Virtually all "famous" characters in history had to be doing something for a much longer time than this in order to gain a mention in mainline history documents.
LOL, and being the son of god did not provide him with any means to make his message more uniform, uncorruptable, durable and widespread. Such a pity your god is no stronger than a man. So surprising, too. You;d think a god would be better at this.

Really. You'd really think a believable god would be better at this than a man. If there were an actual god behind it. Not just men. You know?
 
Probably a reason there are so few references is that Jesus was active publicly for less than 3 years, very likely even less than one year. Virtually all "famous" characters in history had to be doing something for a much longer time than this in order to gain a mention in mainline history documents.

How many other characters in history are mentioned even once in the established history record whose public life was this short?

How many of these “other characters” are you claiming to be The one and only God? Your purported God sure has a funny way of revealing itself, and seems to let the humans do most of his talking for him, BS and all. Seems like it prefers to play hide-and-seek more than anything else…
And most of them are mentioned for accomplishments, not duration of public eye.
If someone was in the public eye for one hour, but caused the dead bodies in the city tombs to get up and walk around during that hour, you'd expect quite a bit of attestation and corroboration in the accounts of the day.

Jesus wasn't just giving speeches or rising to the throne. He was conducting miracles...which no one at the time seemed to write down...
 
Pffft...one can see zombies on TV most every night ;)
 
Atheos said:
Why does it matter when the miracle stories came out?"

You know why. Perhaps you are disturbed that in virtually all the other cases of miracle stories, prior to the invention of printing, the time difference between the actual alleged events and the reports of them is more than 100 years, and often several centuries, as in the case of Gautama.

There's one alleged miracle worker, the emperor Vespacian, for whom the miracle reports are contemporary. However, in this case the one being mythologized is someone who was deified and was famous BEFORE the reported miracle event(s) happened.

So in the very few cases where the event is close to the reports of it, the one reportedly doing the acts is already famous or has a long reputation going back over several decades and the miracle stories are added onto an already colorful career.

But in one case only this pattern is broken. The Christ miracles are reported only a few decades later, in documents (and we don't know how much earlier in oral reports), and the one being mythologized is an unknown (unless you rely on a few gospel reports which say his fame spread widely in the region, in which case you're relying on reports which give these miracle events as the reason for his fame).

So Jesus is the ONLY reputed case of a miracle worker who had no previous reputation to which miracle stories could be added and the written accounts of whom appear within only a few decades after the events.

You cannot deny the uniqueness of this one case. Can you explain it? Doesn't there have to be an explanation for this?

Without more data it is impossible to ascertain exactly what happened. So what sensible historians do is look at what is more likely.

It's exactly like mom walking in on her kids with cookies in their mouths and an open cookie jar nearby. Usually the cookie jar sits on a high shelf but now it's on the counter. One kid says that Jesus miraculously appeared, levitated up to the cookie jar, floated back down with it in his hands, handed one to each child and said, "Take, eat, for this is my body which is broken for you." The kid explains that it would be a sin not to finish eating the cookie.

Another kid says, "No, what happened was that Brian climbed up on the counter, got the cookie jar down off the shelf and put it down here were we could get to the cookies."

One explanation involves the miraculous. The other does not. Mother refuses to believe the levitating cookie thief story for the exact same reason sensible people are skeptical about the Jesus myths.

Now let's say that the first kid whips out his Android smartphone and says, "But mom, I got it all on video! Watch!"

He then plays a video, in which it is clear that her kitchen is visited by this apparition as her other child stares open-mouthed the whole time.

Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. Provide the extraordinary evidence and we've got something to talk about. The very earliest that we can date "Mark" is around 65AD. It's more likely that it was written around 75AD. Either way we're looking at a minimum of 30-40 years of myth development, an eternity when playing the gossip game. Even worse, you've already been told (by me) that other gospels (non canonical) have Jesus living at different time frames or not giving any time frame at all, something you'd know if you'd bother to do a little non-apologetic research into this subject matter.

So what evidence do we have to fill in the gap?

Well... we have the authentic Pauline epistles. These are books that talk about Jesus. They talk about him a lot, and they talk about him precisely during the gap between when the canonical gospels having him living and when they start being produced. What does that evidence say?

Not once - not once does Paul ever mention even a hint that Jesus performed miracles. He doesn't say anything about Jesus confounding the Jewish leaders with his wisdom when he was only 12 years of age. He never mentions turning water into wine, healing blindness, paralysis, leprosy or deformities. He never talks of Jesus confronting the money changers at the temple. He doesn't even mention Jesus bringing two different people back to life. Paul never mentions Jesus being in Jerusalem, Galilee, Nazareth, Bethlehem or any other physical location. The Jesus about which Paul wrote for decades could have lived 200 years before Paul was born for all intents and purposes. The Jesus about which Paul wrote for decades could have not lived on earth at all. All this could have taken place in some spiritual frame. You've been presented this argument before. Ignoring it isn't going to make it go away.

The evidence we have available strongly suggests that the miracle tales developed decades later. A plausible scenario has already been presented, but you've ignored it. Most likely scenario is that as the Jesus myth became more and more popular it suffered from its dearth of the miraculous. Other popular gods could turn water into wine, heal people of disease and tame fierce denizens of the underworld. It would only take one unscrupulous Jesus salesman to begin assuaging his customers with a new version of Jesus who did all these things (and more) to have the entire audience eagerly lapping up these new and much more captivating details about Jesus with gusto.

A quick trip to Snopes dot com is all it takes to come face to face with the incredible proliferation of hoaxes people have created even in modern times and which gullible people believe.

I acknowledge that the time lapse between the reports and the actual events becomes a different matter in modern times, even before the Internet, because of the vast new means of communication, beginning with the invention of printing. Every reported case has to be considered one at a time.

Also, my point is not that there are absolutely no legitimate miracle events other than those of Jesus. If the evidence is there, in a few cases, then there may be some truth to it.

The historical record shows that the mad monk Rasputin had some kind of strange power to heal at least one child of an apparent blood disease. But it's clear that Rasputin's power was very limited.

And the real cases, the ones that can be documented, are a tiny minority of the many cases, most of which are probably hoaxes. Every case has to be considered individually.

It is not "gullible" to believe what the evidence shows.

The truth is sometimes hard to hear, but it's the truth. It is every bit as gullible to believe the Jesus miracle stories based only on their existence in tales as it is to believe everything you read in emails about black market kidney heists and gang initiations involving flashing headlights. Believe what you want, but your beliefs are based not on rational consideration of evidence.

The crap they write about in National Enquirer is every bit as credible as the crap contained in the canonical gospels and the people who wrote it can be identified and their sources can be interrogated.

So you lump them all together and just assume they are all hoaxes and disregard the evidence, no matter what?

There can't be a few exceptions where the reported event really did happen? or is at least partly true?

Is there a miracle-worker reported in the National Enquirer who has or had similar power to heal as Jesus described in the gospel accounts? And is the evidence just as credible? You have examined that evidence and have found that there are no reported cases of this healer being unable to heal someone who was brought to him? I.e., there are no reported cases of "misses" but only "hits"?

Which case is that? Can you name who this healer was? Or did he do other "miracles" that are of a similar nature, i.e., showing a super-human power of some kind? What is the best case of this? You say there are others just as credible as the Jesus accounts. So give an example of one. Which is the best example?
I'm not sure if the quote feature has removed some text at this point that would help explain what it is you're going on about. Find me some extraordinary evidence corroborating these fantastic claims in the National Enquirer and I'll give it more consideration. Meanwhile I'm not swallowing these fantastic claims just because someone saw fit to put them down on paper. You keep trying to "special plead" your Jesus myth as if somehow the unique elements of it are evidence that it happened. Unique elements do not make a story more plausible than other stories because every freaking story has unique elements. Otherwise they'd all just be the same story.

However, you've been presented with the fact that there really is nothing unique in your Jesus myths. Asclepius could heal the sick. Bacchus could turn water into wine. Everything your Jesus did was something some other Greek, Roman, Assyrian or Egyptian god had done centuries before. The entire life of Jesus is nothing more than a warmed over "Hero-God" epic myth that follows the story of Perseus so perfectly that the only remaining miracle is how Christians continue to ignore this critical bit of evidence.
The fact that people believed these bullshit stories offers absolutely nothing of value when it comes to determining whether or not the stories were true.

Wrong, it does offer value. Our historical record comes from witnesses who report the events and believed them. There is very little in the historical record that does not come from someone who reported the events because they believed they happened. The reported events, in documents (which is what the "gospel" accounts are), are accompanied also by archaeological finds, but these latter are few by comparison and tell us much less about the actual events than the documents tell us.
Wow. Seriously? Evidently you've never been to a museum filled with bracelets, pottery, paintings, arrowheads and other artifacts that contain evidence to corroborate (or gainsay) historical documents. There is an old saying, one you'd be well served to apply: "The victors write the history books." Yes, rational historians understand that written documentation is always to be taken with skepticism, especially when it presents too much of a one-sided perspective or contains things unlikely to have happened. The one-sidedness of the gospel narratives, combined with their inclusion of things unlikely to have happened give sensible people good cause to treat them with skepticism.
It's OK to say that we need extra evidence or testimony in the case of something weird or super-normal, but it's not OK to say that any such reports as these are automatically rejected as false, regardless if anyone believed them. That is arbitrary and dogmatic and unscientific.
It is neither arbitrary, dogmatic nor unscientific. The scientific method involves observation, experimentation, hypothesis, testing and conclusion. Observation of blind people reveals that the chances of them gaining their sight instantly is inductively at or near zero. Experiments can be conducted for as long as resources allow without a single blind person recovering sight in this manner. Hypothesis would definitely not favor "Therefore it is possible that someone can cure blindness with a touch." Further testing would fail to verify this hypothesis and the conclusion would be that this is an impossibility. Reading that someone did so in a story that looks for all intents and purposes like historical fiction would not be sufficient evidence to contradict the mountain of evidence to the contrary.
Here's how real historical criticism works:

* The more fantastic the claim the more physical evidence it takes to make it credible.

We don't have any "physical evidence" for most historical events. Unless you mean documents that are discovered. We do have more of this documentary evidence for the miracle acts of Jesus than we have for many of the recognized historical events.
So you've never seen a minie ball or a tabloon? You've never been exposed to the wealth of information we've been able to discover through artifacts about ancient civilizations who had not invented writing? You've never seen a fossil? Your knowledge of the subject matter you're arguing is atrocious.
Nevertheless, I agree that extra evidence is required for such events as this. So for normal events, one source alone is often sufficient. While for miracle acts it requires more than one source, or more than two.

There is no scientific or objective criterion for prescribing the exact number of sources that is required.

If you maintain that the evidence for these events is not sufficient to be included as facts of history in standard history textbooks, I don't disagree. These unusual events in the N.T. belong in a category of many historical events that are reported as doubtful, or events that cannot be verified sufficiently as proven facts, but which nevertheless may be actual historical events -- and they are put into the unknown category, as possibly true but doubtful.

Much of the historical events are in this category. Was King Arthur a real king? Are the exploits of William Tell for real? How much of the Rienzi character is real, and how much imaginary? etc. Obviously there are many legends and fictional elements mixed in with the facts, but also normal events which cannot be verified with certainty, where some details, even important ones, are in doubt.
Well you're sounding pretty reasonable now. Why do you exclude your Jesus myth from these, pray tell?
* The more a story disagrees with the historical record the less likely it is to be credible.

Of course. But "the historical record" is simply the entire collection of all the reported events in all the documents. The N.T. is included as part of these documents, or as part of the historical record. You cannot arbitrarily exclude any documents from the historical record. You can say some are more reliable than others, but you have to include them all.
Ah, except as I've mentioned above, for non-document artifacts, of which there is quite a bit.
Even Homer and Virgil are part of the historical record. Every document has its proper place in the record, and some are taken more literally than others, some given more credibility. But all are included, none is arbitrarily excluded because of some dogmatic bias against it or because someone is on an ideological vendetta against that particular source.


* The more the perpetrators of a story have an obvious political or religious agenda the more skeptical one should be in accepting the story at face value.

Of course. And virtually all of them do have such an agenda, and the more this agenda shows itself, the more skeptical we should be. However, even in a biased source we can read between the lines and glean the truth, or make a good speculation. So you cannot exclude a source even if it is very biased. Rather, you take into account this bias and still look for what truth we can get from it that would not be tainted, or is less tainted, by that bias.
Which is why sensible people would conclude that perhaps an itinerant non-miracle-working preacher named Jesus may have lived around the time frame in question, pissed off some important people and gotten his ass crucified for his efforts. His followers, living in denial as grieving people often do, refused to believe he was dead. The rest, as they say is ... sort of ... history. Fits all the evidence, jettisons all the miraculous BS and leaves us with a plausible scenario.
* The more independently a story is corroborated the better a chance the story has credibility.

It depends on what you mean by "independently." There is nothing wrong with a source relying partly on earlier sources. This actually increases the reliability. It makes it more certain that this source is not inventing its own private version of the facts, but is trying to stay in keeping with the earlier reports.

There is nothing less credible about a source which relies partly on earlier sources while also adding its own unique contribution that is separate from the other sources.
But that is not what happened, is it? Matthew didn't simply "add more unique contributions." Matthew directly contradicted Mark in many places. Luke and John directly contradicts the others in places. This is consistent with myth development over large areas where people spread out and add more details independently to their myth. The gospels themselves are evidence that most of what happened in them is made-up.
The gospel narratives contain extremely extraordinary claims backed up by absolutely no physical evidence.

Again, there are many facts of history for which there is no "physical evidence" other than the documents that report these facts.

Since the claims are extraordinary it is reasonable to require additional sources. But to require "physical evidence" which is not required for other historical events is an unreasonable demand based only on a dogmatic prejudice against such events being possible. You cannot reasonably require a higher quality of evidence. Rather, you can demand some extra evidence that is the same kind or the same quality of evidence as is required for the ordinary events or claims.
Extraordinary evidence is required for extraordinary claims. Don't know how many times this must be said but it obviously isn't sinking in. Mythic stories are not extraordinary evidence as there are thousands of such mythic stories and not one piece of extraordinary evidence backing any of them up. I've already mentioned the sort of evidence one would expect to find had Jesus performed such incredible miracles in a highly populated area such as Jerusalem. There would be some evidence contemporary to the events that would survive. There is none. We have mundane letters written in that area about trivial crap from that time period. We have absolutely nothing documenting this incredible person's activities. Which is why that person's activities reported 40 years after the fact lack credibility.

The gospel narratives disagree in many places with known information about the times and places uncovered over the years through scientific disciplines.

Usually on minor details only. Most of the accepted histories of the period also contain disagreements or discrepancies. There are contradictions even within the writings of the same historian.

There are a few major details in the gospel accounts where there is a discrepancy problem. But these are generally found in only one of the gospel accounts. Such as the star over Bethlehem. This does not undermine the credibility of Matthew generally, for the general account of what happened.

You need to give us 1 or 2 of the best examples of these disagreements with known information. You're probably thinking of some minor detail that is not important. Give an example.
Okay, how's this:

"John" has Mary showing up at a desolate scene on resurrection morning. No guards, nobody around, just an empty tomb. She runs to Peter and tells him "They have taken his body and we don't know what they've done with it!" Peter and John rush back, investigate and leave. Mary hangs around after they leave, gets talked to by angels and then turns around and there is Jesus standing right there.

"Matthew" has Mary and Mary showing up at an incredible scene involving an earthquake, an angel triumphantly sitting on the stone rolled away from the tomb, and at least two guards laying on the ground petrified with fear. The angel tells the ladies that Jesus has risen and that they need to go tell his disciples to meet him in Galilee. The ladies actually bump into Jesus himself before they get to the disciples.

"Luke" has at least 5 women showing up at the tomb which is open but no angels are outside. They go inside the tomb and suddenly the angels appear and start talking to them. They go tell the disciples, who didn't believe them. Yada yada yada... Jesus miraculously appears inside a locked room with the disciples. There he tells them to stay in Jerusalem until they have been endued with power from on high.

John's desolate scene is the direct opposite of Matthew's dramatic one. Luke's angels appear inside the tomb after the ladies get there but Matthew and Mark have their messengers outside the tomb. In one version Mary has no clue what happened to Jesus when she reaches Peter, but in others she has not only been told what happened but she's talked to Jesus himself.

Matthew's version has the disciples meeting Jesus in Galilee, at least 30 miles north of Jerusalem. Luke/Acts leaves absolutely no room for a journey to Galilee and is very specific that everything that happened between resurrection Sunday and Pentecost happened in Jerusalem. Can't both be right. Could both be wrong.

That's just for starters. Rationalize all you want. These are direct contradictions. There are many more.
They also disagree with each other, making it impossible for more than one to contain the truth.

Where there's a contradiction on a minor detail, of course only one could be correct on that particular point. There is a discrepancy about the two prisoners crucified alongside Jesus, but that's just a detail.

The accounts all "contain the truth" generally of what happened, despite the minor discrepancies. We can identify the less reliable parts or which reported events or words are incorrect. Or, where it's doubtful or we can't make a good judgment, we can just put it in the doubtful category. Even if large portions are doubtful as to the particular details, it still doesn't mean that the general portrayal of Jesus or general description of events is unreliable.

I believe the Barabbas story is confused, but something about it is correct, and we can figure out what really happened, or make a good guess. And even though the truth might differ from what is presented in the accounts, still there is probably some truth in the story of the exchange, where Barabbas is released and Jesus is condemned instead. So there is a true narrative of what happened mixed in with the confused part.


The gospel narratives contain extremely focused religious agenda.

OK, but that doesn't mean there's no credibility to them. That should be plural "agendas" because the writers or redactors did not all have the identically same agenda. You cannot dismiss an account just because the writer had an agenda. It's fine to try to identify the agenda and determine what inaccuracy this might cause. It does not mean the whole account is unreliable.


The gospel narratives are not corroborated by anything independent of themselves . . .

What corroboration do you want? There IS some corroboration on some points. I already mentioned that Josephus confirms that John the Baptist was beheaded by Herod Antipas. There is also corrobation that Pontius Pilate ordered Jesus to be crucified. And there's additional corrobation on some events. What additional corroboration do you demand?


. . . and no serious scholar dares suggest that the various people involved in their production weren't heavily influenced by each others' work.

Yes, that has been acknowledged, and what's wrong with that? They did rely on earlier sources. It's good that they relied on earlier sources, instead of them each just inventing their own private fictional accounts. We see some of the reliance, in Mt and Lk relying on the earlier Q source, which is lost. There's nothing wrong with them relying on that earlier source.

What kind of "influence" from another's work do you think makes them unreliable? Give an example.


Long story short, the gospel narratives fail miserably in every category.

What is the failure you see? Name one category and explain how any of them "fail" the test of credibility as far as giving us a generally correct portrayal of Jesus and what happened.

Again, these accounts would not be included in a school history text and presented as factually established or proved historical facts. Rather, they are in a doubtful category and could be mentioned as reported facts that cannot be verified, and which may or may not be true. They have a proper place alongside many other reported historical events that cannot be established with certainty.


They are believed in solely for religious reasons, not because they are substantiated in any objective way.

They are more substantiated than they would be if the evidence for them was as meager as in the case of all other reported miracle events or wonder-workers or hero figures. And they are substantiated more than many historical events for which there is only one source.

You cannot dogmatically exclude facts solely on the grounds of a connection to religious elements. An anti-religious bias is no more objective as a basis for identifying the truth than a pro-religious bias.


An objective substantiation would be one that would only apply to the gospel narratives and would exclude competing religious traditions.

You mean a source that confirms events in the gospel accounts and has no connection to any Christian belief about the events?

The best examples of this are:

a mention of Christ by Suetonius writing about 122 AD, who mistook Christ to be a Roman who was causing disturbances among the Jews in Rome during the reign of Claudius;

a mention of Christ by Tacitus, writing about 115 AD, referring to the execution of Christ and naming Pontius Pilate as giving the order;

a mention of Christians by Pliny the younger in a letter to Trajan, about 112 AD, concerning what to do with them and about executing some of them;

mention in Josephus of the execution of John the Baptist, which agrees with the gospels in general, but not in some details;

mention in Josephus of Jesus "who was called Christ," and naming him as the brother of James.

Probably a reason there are so few references is that Jesus was active publicly for less than 3 years, very likely even less than one year. Virtually all "famous" characters in history had to be doing something for a much longer time than this in order to gain a mention in mainline history documents.

How many other characters in history are mentioned even once in the established history record whose public life was this short?

Jesus is not mentioned at all in the established history record. He is mentioned in myths that clearly developed over a period of decades, settling into a time frame and geographic location 40 years after the alleged events took place. The nebulous nature of the earliest depictions of Jesus have no time frame or location, making it impossible for people to gainsay the myth. As actual people who might have been alive at the time began to die off the details start appearing. It is as blatant a case of myth building as one could present.

But the fact remains that you don't get to hide a miracle worker behind decades of cloud and smoke and then pretend that somehow the myths written about him 40 years later are evidence that he worked the miracles. This is not responsible historical critique. It is religion, pure and simple.

And it is religion, not science, that is dogmatic and oftentimes arbitrary.
 
So, where are all those Jesus-like miracle workers who are supposed to be a dime-a-dozen?

In any case, the manuscripts we have for the gospel accounts are closer to the original events than those for other historical events. The time gap separating the existing copies from the original events is no reason to doubt their reliability.

If being close to events made things truer, then Islam should be very seriously considered, as the oldest extant copy comes in just 40 years after Muhammad’s death.

What events of Muhammad's time reported in those documents should we question? Do they make claims that are not credible? We're talking about reported events that someone rejects as not being factual. Like the miracles of Jesus in the gospel accounts.


We are quite confident that Joseph Smith penned the Book of Mormon, so here is another great contender based upon this notion of credibility of document proximity.

Do you mean that the events reported in the Book of Mormon are more believable than those reported in the Gospel accounts? I don't think those reported events were near to the time of Joseph Smith or that he had any sources about those events. I'm not sure what analogy you're drawing between the Book of Mormon and its content and the Gospel accounts and their content.

The comparison I'm pointing out is to other examples of reported miracle events. In all the other cases, like Gautama and Apollonius and Simon Magus, the time gap between the events in question and the written record of them is large, even centuries.


Never mind that the Jesus prophet never wrote anything.

What conclusion do you draw from that? His public life was 3 years at most. All the others lived to an old age or enjoyed a long public career, so they had time to do writing.


Another point towards historical accuracy and the distance of the oldest copies to said events, is that when military students review Julius Caesar's Gallic Wars, they don’t need to assume everything within it is true.

Neither do students of the N.T. accounts need to assume everything in the N.T. is true. Some do, but others do not. We are able to get the truth from a source, or some of the truth, without having to accept the source as infallible.


Their future or life doesn’t depend on it.

It's true that the psychology of Caesar and his readers is a lot different than that of the N.T. writers. However, there are sources other than the Bible which contain subjective elements such as belief in the gods and miracles and propaganda, and yet they are still reliable for some knowledge of historical events.


And Caesar didn’t boast of Apollo guiding him thru it, or casting the sun dark, or what not to provide miracles so he could win. Caesar didn’t claim to trumpet around a heavily fortified structure until it magically crumbled.

You're right that Caesar is more reliable than the Book of Joshua as a source. However, the battle of Jericho probably did really happen. The story contains the mythological element as well as some basic core of historical truth. We need to look for the part that really did happen, or try to separate the mythic element from the true events, and not reject the source as entirely fiction.


A few useful thoughts on the accuracy and veracity of “eye-witness” testimony:
From the American Psychological Association:
http://www.apa.org/monitor/apr06/eyewitness.aspx
Iowa State University experimental social psychologist Gary Wells, PhD, a member of a 1999 U.S. Department of Justice panel that published the first-ever national guidelines on gathering eyewitness testimony, says Loftus's model suggests that crime investigators need to think about eyewitness evidence in the same way that they think about trace evidence.
"Like trace evidence, eyewitness evidence can be contaminated, lost, destroyed or otherwise made to produce results that can lead to an incorrect reconstruction of the crime," he says. Investigators who employ a scientific model to collect, analyze and interpret eyewitness evidence may avoid incidents like Olson's potentially flawed identification of the Fairbanks suspects, he notes.

From the Stanford Journal of Legal Studies:
http://agora.stanford.edu/sjls/Issue One/fisher&tversky.htm
The courts’ reliance on witnesses is built into the common-law judicial system, a reliance that is placed in check by the opposing counsel’s right to cross-examination—an important component of the adversarial legal process—and the law’s trust of the jury’s common sense. The fixation on witnesses reflects the weight given to personal testimony. As shown by recent studies, this weight must be balanced by an awareness that it is not necessary for a witness to lie or be coaxed by prosecutorial error to inaccurately state the facts—the mere fault of being human results in distorted memory and inaccurate testimony.

So, all eye-witness testimony should be disregarded? So, probably 90% of what is in the history books didn't really happen, because it originated from eye-witness testimony?

If the Jesus miracle events could easily be a result of flawed eye-witness testimony, and something happened to cause these stories to emerge within that 1st-century environment, due to witnesses seeing something that wasn't really there, then we should have more than ONLY ONE Jesus-type miracle-worker appearing during that period, for whom there would be several accounts near to the time that the figure reportedly did the particular miracle acts.

So it is difficult to attribute these stories to flawed eye-witness accounts, because there were many other places and times where witnesses could have falsely reported similar events which would have been recorded because people believed them the same as they believed the Jesus miracle stories. Where are the accounts of these other miracle events or other mythic savior figures who performed such acts which were recorded? Why do all the flawed eye-witness accounts converge onto this one Galilean only and not onto several other similar persons who won a following?


The reason to give credibility to the accounts is that there are too many of them from different sources all pointing to this one miracle-worker figure instead of a wide variety of different stories centering on several different such figures.

LOL . . . yeah that sort of works, as long as one ignores mainstream theologians who pretty much consider Matthew and Luke to have used Mark as their base.

Mark is one source, but there are others. Plus John has a different origin than Matthew & Luke. In all these there are easily 6 or more sources. There are likely several early oral sources. We can add Paul for just the resurrection account. Why do all these accounts of miracles center in on this one figure only, instead of offering readers a variety of mighty miracle workers emerging during this period? What unites them altogether into this one Galilean figure?

John’s source was as likely a hallucinogenic as anything else.

But why did he hallucinate the same historical figure that the three synoptics hallucinated? Why did so many writers all hallucinate the same particular miracle-worker events? Why didn't they hallucinate different miracle-workers in different places and times?


Who knows why this cult succeeded where others did not?

One answer is that the central figure, Jesus Christ, actually did perform the particular acts. This explains the anomaly. Of course you can just say we don't know the answer. But if one answer explains it, and there is no other good answer, then you have to seriously consider that one answer, even if it makes you uncomfortable.


Though the Roman Empire later certainly helped greatly expand the influence of this religion.

Yes, but only after it had already distinguished itself from all those other hallucinated miracle-workers and the accounts of this Christ figure were in circulation. Later the Roman Empire joined in to this Christ cult already well in progress. But what explains the earlier spread of the new cult and the accounts of the original mythic figure, such that all the other hallucinated mythic miracle-workers gained no traction and had no acceptance at all and no written reports about them? You need to identify some cause much EARLIER than Constantine and the 4th century.


Why have the Mormons done quite well, and the Christian Scientists have floundered? Why has the The Bahá'í Faith managed to gain around 5 million followers worldwide in 200 years, roughly 10 times the Christian Scientists?

I'm not sure what the reasons are for this. But are you saying that these things happen without any reason? I assume one could find reasons to explain the success of one movement vs. another. You can't say it just happens without any reason or cause.

In the case of the new Jesus cult, the reason is that the miracle events described must have really happened, and the word spread and large numbers believed.


Afterwards there emerges some new miracle-workers, a century or more later, like Simon Magus and Apollonius of Tyana, plus also the miracles in Acts, which are an afterthought. But how is it that we have these several sources all appearing about this time, all focused on this one Jesus figure, then setting off a sudden flurry of new miracles in the later non-canonical books, first centered on Jesus, and then on many copy-cat miracle-workers. What set off this explosion of miracle stories beginning with the Jesus accounts?

LOL -- you think there was shortage of gods, miracles, fables prior to your Jesus-demigod?

What's a comparable example of someone who reportedly demonstrated such power?


One neat example is Buddhist Maudgalyāyana, from the 6th century BC.

I checked on the source for this historical figure, and no one, including Wikipedia, tells clearly what the date is for it. It's called "Ullambana Sutra" and it appears from everything that refers to it that it was written several centuries later. And yet they keep saying 3rd century and even 6th century without making it clear that they mean AD or CE and not BC.

There are some related sources on the topic which are clearly dated CE, so it seems that the original "Ullambana Sutra" is also AD and not BC.

If it's that late, then it is worthless as a historical source for someone who lived in the 6th century BC. Nevertheless, even if it should somehow date way back to 500+ BC, it is the ONLY source about Maudgalyayana, and so is not very reliable, since, for miracle events, we need at least 2 separate sources.

But there is a further reason to suppose that this person did not really perform the miracle acts attributed to him. And that is that he lived 84 years and was a Buddhist teacher, said to be among Gautama's foremost disciples, and so apparently he taught as a Buddhist master for several decades. This gives plenty of explanation how he would be mythologized into a miracle-worker without having actually performed any such acts.

For examples of someone comparable to the Jesus figure, we need someone who does not fit the normal mythologizing pattern we find with all the sages or guru figures, because in those cases it is easy to explain how the mythologizing process got started. Thus, a wise old sage with hundreds of disciples who follow him for decades easily gets mythologized by them into a god figure who does miracles. This did not happen in the case of Jesus, who does not fit this standard mythic hero pattern.

Also, we need an example of someone for whom the miracle stories exist within a few years later and are then reported in written accounts less than a hundred years later. This is not the case for virtually all the celebrated miracle-worker Buddhist and Hindu gurus. Their supernatural deeds are not recorded until several centuries later, long past the period when they lived.


Or may Zoroaster from 3,000 years ago:

Zoroastrians were a little slower than the Christians in taker over the Empire, taking 500 years as compared to the Christian 300 odd years:
http://www.questcentre.ca/blogs/view/the-incredible-zoroaster

The point is that Zoroaster was always on the run. He was never in a position to buy greatness. So, why would anybody follow such a loser?

After searching a bit, I finally found something that says Zoroaster performed miracles http://www.thefamouspeople.com/profiles/zoroaster-94.php . But no source is given for these stories. It's probably an accumulation of stories over several centuries. What we need is a source from 500 BC or earlier. In any case, the usual pattern of mythologizing seems to apply in his case. He obviously did his teaching over several decades and a long lifetime, in which he accumulated a following. And so this can easily lead to the buildup of legends which made him into a god.

In all these cases, you have to explain how the original figure, later expanded into a legend or mythic hero, got his start as a folk hero. There has to be a famous figure to begin with, around which the legends then build. Where did this original folk hero come from? In the case of Jesus, this is difficult to answer, unless the miracle stories are real events that actually happened.


Enter mythology and all the gifts it brings. Though I do not mean to sound cynical, mythological stories are able to turn the tale upside down, and this certainly happened with Zoroaster. He succeeded before he died in having a small following, and from such a beginning his movement slowly spread until, 500 years later, he was the founding prophet of a state religion.

So then his case fits the typical mythologizing pattern, where he establishes his reputation in a long career of teaching, and the miracles start appearing some time after has death, as he was celebrated for his long career as a teacher, and it took several centuries for him to evolve into a god who did miracles.

But in the case of Jesus the miracle stories and the accounts of them came in only a few decades. And he had no long career in which to accumulate disciples and establish his reputation as a wise sage.


The followers of the poet, however, do not repeat the author but promote the author. The followers must add authority to the author, and this is where mythology comes in. So, we do have in the story of Zoroaster that he was born of a virgin mother, that Asha and Druj wrestled together inside his mother’s womb, and that he was born laughing. He was enlightened on a mountaintop at the age of 30. Miracles were associated with his life. And at the end of time he will come back as the saviour. These myths work to give authority to Zoroaster.

But not credence to the miracle stories, because these can easily be explained as the result of centuries of mythologizing. But the miracles of Jesus cannot be explained this way.

Tales about the gods and virgin births are not important to prove anything. What really matters are reported acts of power, such as the healing acts, which witnesses observed, and raising the dead. We know what the sources are for these acts in the case of Jesus, as the reports were circulating within 20-30 years after his death, and even written accounts appearing. But what are the sources for Zoroaster's miracles? When were they written?


Other thoughts on “miracle workers”:
http://infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/kooks.html
Apollonius, Peregrinus, and Alexander are three rather interesting religious founders about whom we know even more than we do of Jesus.

This statement that "we know even more" about them than we do of Jesus is false and is based only on an arbitrary dogmatic premise that the N.T. gospel accounts have no credibility whatever. As to the three figures named -- Apollonius, Peregrinus, and Alexander -- we have only one source for each. And for the latter two, it's questionable whether any miracle act is reported.

This author, Richard Carrier, likes to pretend that he can give many examples of miracle-workers similar to Jesus, but he does not give any real examples that are comparable. All his examples are about worshippers of various healing gods which have their reputation established over many centuries, and the devotees worship at their statues or temples and relate healing experiences. But these are all cases of a healing god who had been worshiped for centuries, and so had a long-established reputation. Jesus had none of this in 29-30 AD.


The first, Apollonius of Tyana, is often called the "pagan Christ," since he also lived during the first century, and performed a similar ministry of miracle-working, preaching his own brand of ascetic Pythagoreanism--he was also viewed as the son of a god, resurrected the dead, ascended to heaven, performed various miracles, . . .

For all of which we have only one source, which is separated from the events by more than 100 years.


. . . and criticized the authorities with pithy wisdom much like Jesus did.

Naturally, his story is one that no doubt grew into more and more fantastic legends over time, until he becomes an even more impressive miracle-worker than Jesus in the largest surviving work on him, The Life of Apollonius of Tyana, written by Philostratus around 220 A.D. This work is available today in two volumes as part of the Loeb Classical Library, published by Harvard University Press, a set that also includes the surviving fragments of Apollonius' own writings (if only Jesus had bothered to write something!) . . .

That the legendary figure in question wrote something is not important. Presumably he really existed and probably did something noteworthy, including some writing, along with some teaching. There is nothing unusual about being a teacher and a writer. The question is whether he performed miracle acts as described. And for this there is only one source, written more than a century after his death.

This is not comparable to the case of Jesus, for whom we have several sources within a century after the events, and some accounts within 20 years (Mt and LK using the Q source), plus the resurrection account in Paul which is less than 30 years later.

You have to come up with a better example than Apollonius of Tyana. If this is the best you can do, which seems to be the case, then you are confirming that Jesus as a miracle-worker stands uniquely apart from all the other reported miracle-workers, despite the wish to find someone comparable to him and the pretense that Apollonius is comparable. We must have more than one source for miracle events, and they must be closer than 150 years after the alleged events took place.

. . . as well as the Treatise against him by the Christian historian Eusebius.

Too late. You need a source near to the time that the miracle-worker lived, not centuries later. That Eusebius reports on him tells us that he was probably a real character who had a reputation by the late 4th century and annoyed some Christians, but the evidence that he had power is not supported by this kind of late-dated source.


There were other books written about him immediately after his death, but none survive.

There's no evidence of any other such sources that became lost, except a dubious claim by Philostratus about a source he supposedly used:

One of the essential sources Philostratus claimed to know are the “memoirs” (or “diary”) of Damis, an acolyte and companion of Apollonius. Some scholars claim the notebooks of Damis were an invention of Philostratus,[11] while others think it could have been a real book forged by someone else and naively used by Philostratus. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apollonius_of_Tyana#Sources

Other than this, there is no evidence that there was any other source for Apollonius. If you believe this one name in Philostratus indicates another real source, then you cannot dispute that there are several separate sources for the miracle events of Jesus. Including the Q source, for which there is far more evidence than there is for any Apollonius source other than Philostratus.

That this example is cited and offered as someone comparable to the case of Jesus, for whom we have several separate sources attesting to his miracle acts, only shows the extreme lack of any other comparable miracle-worker individuals in the historical record. This Apollonius seems to be the best that they can find, and yet there is no comparison.


Even Eusebius, in his Treatise against Apollonius, does not question his existence, or the reality of many of his miracles--rather, he usually tries to attribute them to trickery or demons. This shows the credulity of the times, even among educated defenders of the Christian faith, but it also shows how easy it was to deceive. Since they readily believed in demons and magical powers, it should not surprise us that they believed in resurrections and transmutations of water to wine.

First, it's not true that Eusebius believed easily without any critical judgment. Here's one excerpt from his treatise:

(from chapter XII http://sacred-texts.com/cla/aot/toe/toe02.htm )
I have no wish to enquire curiously about the ghost of Proteus, or to ask for confirmation of it, nor to demand proof of his ridiculous story that swans surrounded his mother and assisted her to bring him into the world; equally little do I ask him to produce evidence of his fairy-tale about the thunderbolt; for as I said before he cannot anyhow claim the authority of Damis for these particulars, inasmuch as the latter joined him much later on in the city of Nineveh of Assyria.

Here, Eusebius is questioning the source Damis, cited by Philostratus for some claims he makes about Apollonius.

I am however quite ready to accept all that is probable and has an air of truth about it, even though such details may be somewhat exaggerated and highly-coloured out of compliment to a good man;

"good man" = Apollonius, who Eusebius pays respect to, believing some of the claims about him, i.e., "all that is probable," but not the exaggerations and those made only to promote the hero's image.

. . . for I could still bring myself to accept them, as long as they are not bewilderingly wonderful and full of nonsense. I do not therefore mind the author telling us that Apollonius was of an ancient family and lineally descended from the first settlers, and was rich, if it were so, beyond all other people of that region; and that when he was young he not only had the distinguished teachers mentioned, but, if he likes, I will allow that he became himself their teacher and master in learning. I grant too, in addition, that he was skilful in ordinary matters, and so was able by giving the best of advice to rid of his malady one who had come to the temple of Asclepius in order to be healed.

Eusebius keeps an open mind about the possibility of the healing event.

For we read that he suggested to a man afflicted with dropsy a régime of abstinence well suited to cure his disease, and in that way restored him to health: and so far we must needs commend the youthful Apollonius for his good sense.

So he attributes the healing to good medical advice, within the framework of the current medical science, and not to something miraculous. And he pays tribute to Apollonius for giving the good advice.

So Eusebius here shows some good critical faculties and is not a simpleton who automatically believes every claim of supernatural or miraculous power. He knows there were healings reported by Asclepius worshippers, but these are explained as normal healings or recoveries that would have taken place anyway, or in this case, due to good medical advice which possibly worked.

But secondly, even if it is granted that Eusebius, writing almost 400 years after Christ, had a tendency to be accepting of miracle stories, or to believe them too easily, this tells us nothing about the mentality of those who wrote the gospel accounts, or who relayed the miracle stories of Jesus, in 30 or 40 or 50 AD.

Miracle stories became very common in the period after Jesus, especially into the 2nd century, when all the additional "gospel" accounts began appearing and making new claims about miracles that Jesus supposedly did. And then came new miracle-workers also, usually deriving their power from the same Jesus person, but then also some non-Jesus figures such as Apollonius. There is usually only one source for these. Or in some cases, like Simon Magus, the stories start adding up and extra writers mention them. But all the sources are from centuries later, long after the reputed miracle-worker lived.

In the case of Simon Magus there is a possible reference in Josephus, but no miracle acts are mentioned. Only that he was a magician. But 100 or 200 years later we start getting new stories of amazing stunts he did, like flying.

So the miracle stories abound, AFTER the Jesus event, when they seem to explode onto the stage. But what about before?


(to be continued)
 
Though the Roman Empire later certainly helped greatly expand the influence of this religion.

Yes, but only after it had already distinguished itself from all those other hallucinated miracle-workers and the accounts of this Christ figure were in circulation
Actually, it was the act of the Roman Empire that circulated the cult AND provided the trimming away of all the various Christ cults that conflicted with each other, contradicted each other and were not terribly recognizable as being of a similar influence or source.

You keep pretending the Christ Cult was a single religion in the years before Constantine.
Reality is not your friend in this fantasy. The 'christain' cults were all over the map. Constantine's effort trimmed away all the weird ones and the too-small-to-matter ones and a shitload that would be viewed as heresy today.

And the winners get to pretend that their sources go unchallenged all the way back to the time of the Christ.
 
So, where are all those Jesus-like miracle workers who are supposed to be a dime-a-dozen?

(continued)


So the miracle stories abound, AFTER the Jesus event, when they seem to explode onto the stage. But what about before?

There's hardly any supply of these miracle-workers or miracle events in the mid-first century or earlier. There are virtually no cases of historical individual healers, similar to Jesus, but only cases of worshipers at statues and temples praying to a long-established healing deity, like Asclepius. This is not analogous to the Jesus miracle healing events.

There's one story in Josephus of an exorcist who did a stunt to make onlookers believe a demon came out of the possessed one:

God also enabled him [Solomon] to learn that skill which expels demons, which is a science useful and sanative to men. He composed such incantations also by which distempers are alleviated. And he left behind him the manner of using exorcisms, by which they drive away demons, so that they never return; and this method of cure is of great force unto this day; for I have seen a certain man of my own country, whose name was Eleazar, releasing people that were demoniacal in the presence of Vespasian, and his sons, and his captains, and the whole multitude of his soldiers. The manner of the cure was this: He put a ring that had a Foot of one of those sorts mentioned by Solomon to the nostrils of the demoniac, after which he drew out the demon through his nostrils; and when the man fell down immediately, he abjured him to return into him no more, making still mention of Solomon, and reciting the incantations which he composed. And when Eleazar would persuade and demonstrate to the spectators that he had such a power, he set a little way off a cup or basin full of water, and commanded the demon, as he went out of the man, to overturn it, and thereby to let the spectators know that he had left the man; (Ant. 8.2.45-48)

This is the closest there is to any healing event recorded in Josephus. Note that Josephus never says the victim actually was cured, but only that he fell down. The emphasis is not on the cure, but on the knocking over of the object by the demon coming out.

The only other miracle-worker in Josephus is Onias, also called Honi the Circle-Drawer in some later Talmud excerpts. Here's all Josephus says about Onias doing any miracle:

Now there was one named Onias, a righteous man and beloved of God, who, in a certain drought, had once prayed to God to put an end to the intense heat, and God had heard his prayer and sent rain. (Ant. 14.2.1)

That's it. He prayed and rain came. Roughly 100 years before Josephus was born. All further miracles attributed to this acclaimed miracle-worker are from the Talmud about 200 years later, AFTER the Jesus miracle stories had been circulating.

So, we have ONLY ONE SOURCE, from more than a century later, and further, the actual event, if true, could easily have been a coincidence.

So now, the pattern is this: before Jesus there was not any great amount of miracle stories in circulation that resemble anything like those in the gospel accounts; but after Jesus, within a few decades there began to appear miracle stories, and they increased in great number, into the 2nd century, and ballooned into a vast number of new "gospel" accounts and others which reported miracles in huge supply.

All there was before Jesus were some healing and praying stories centered mostly on the Asclepius cult, which worshiped this god who might have been a real person 1000 years earlier and for whom there are various inscriptions on temple walls of healings that happened over many centuries. There was no historical person doing such acts such as we see described in the gospel accounts.

With these healing accounts, it's always the hits that are recorded and never the misses. You could argue that the same is true of the Jesus reports. But what caused the worshipers or believers to remember the hits and disregard the misses? Why did they give the god or the healer the benefit of the doubt and always excuse the misses? It has to be because they already believe fervently in this healing god which has such a respected and honored reputation going back many generations. But that explanation does not apply in the case of the Jesus healings.

There were also reported healings at the statues of gods who had an established reputation going back for centuries. But no healing stories of a healer who did not have such a long-established reputation. Except the case of Jesus, who pops up out of nowhere and suddenly becomes the most famous of all the healing gods in less than 100 years. Even less than 50 years.

So there is no precedent for the Jesus miracle acts, whereas the rash of miracle stories that abound after him derive from a trend that got started some time in the first century AD. And we have no indication before about 50 AD of any naive simplicity on the part of people to believe any and all miracle stories reported, or especially any healing stories, such as those in the gospel accounts.

And if there was such a naive acceptance of miracle stories later, such as in the 3rd and 4th centuries, in the time of Eusebius, this is easily explained as a result of the rash of miracle stories that emerged in the 1st century. What caused this new rash of miracle stories that began during the period after the Christ event in about 29-30 AD?


So there are really at least 6 total sources for the miracle events of Jesus. They are mostly narrative accounts of such events, but there are also non-narrative statements attesting to the events. Most of these probably relied on some earlier source, both oral and written, but we don't know what they were.

LOL . . . do you understand what a primary source is as compared to a secondary source?

Why are you obsessing on the difference between "primary" and "secondary" source? We rely on many sources for history that are not "primary" sources. Tacitus is not a primary source for the reign of Tiberius thru Claudius. Yet we rely on him for this period. Similarly we rely on later writers for much of the historical record, even if it's the only source for it. Just because it is written by someone a generation or more later does not make it an unreliable source.


Again, Paul never witnessed any Jesus events, so he is NOT a primary source. He was also very vacuous, regarding the life and miracles of Jesus, and is a secondary source.

But he did have contact with some who were direct witnesses. So he comes close to being a primary source for the resurrection event. He was around to have witnessed it. He probably came into some early indirect contact with it or those who witnessed it.

But also, there IS a "primary" source in the Q document. Even though it did not survive separately, it is contained in Mt and Lk and can be mostly reconstructed. And it almost certainly comes from those who witnessed Jesus directly. And it contains 2 miracle accounts plus also a reference to the healing acts that Jesus performed.

So although "primary" sources are not required in order to establish historical events with credibility, we do have one such source, or we know that it existed and we have a good reconstruction of it, to help strengthen the evidence that exists for these events.


John seemed to be on a different planet, so I’m not sure how that helps your argument.

John is an extra separate source from the others and increases the evidence for the miracles of Jesus. It is less reliable than the synoptics, but coincides with them on major points, such as much of the arrest and trial and crucifixion accounts, and overlaps with the synoptics on some other general points, such as the Galilean ministry and travel to Jerusalem. Though its inconsistencies with the synoptics make it difficult to rely on it for details or chronology, it still helps confirm the activities of Jesus in Galilee and the general historicity of the portrayal of Jesus and his power. Unlike the Apollonius legend for which there is one source only.


It also ignores books like the Gospel of Thomas.

What ignores them? The 4 canonical gospels pre-date the other gospels.

Not really. The Gospel of Thomas, though it has a wide range for its estimated origins (50 – 140 AD) is quite within the same ballpark as Matthew and John.

In all likelihood it's 2nd century. But regardless, no one is ignoring the Gospel of Thomas. We should not expect the synoptics or John to pay any attention to the Gospel of Thomas, because in the unlikely event that it existed when Matthew or John were written, the latter probably did not have it, so can't be expected to make any reference to it.


Adding back in, what I was responding to:

The reason to give credibility to the accounts is that there are too many of them from different sources all pointing to this one miracle-worker figure instead of a wide variety of different stories centering on several different such figures.

FiS said:
It also ignores the first Christian canon in history by Marcion.

What ignores it? What do you think should have been done with this 2nd-century literature? It was not included because it came later.

I wasn’t stating that Marcion’s redactions should be included in the later cannon that emerged one to two centuries later. My point is that his group had begun to establish what they thought was the “true” canon of the Jesus-demigod. This disrupts the notion that there was unity about how to package this Jesus demigod.

So there were different ways to "package" him and possibly different interpretations of him, but the point is that this one miracle-worker figure is the ONLY one reported who has any credibility and could not have been a product of mythologizing. Rather he is a SOURCE of the mythologizing that then took place after he did whatever he did that brought him this sudden unexplainable reputation.


Marcion dumped the Jewish writings/teachings of old about Yahweh. He only accepted a different version of Luke. He didn’t include Acts, Hebrews, several of Paul’s letters, nor Revelations. He may have pointed towards the same Miracle Max by name, but he was definitely building up a fairly different demigod.

What was different about his demigod? Did he say his demigod was from Egypt or from Asia Minor or from Idumea or Samaria or Judea instead of from Galilee? How was his demigod different? Did he say he did not die in Jerusalem or that he never was prosecuted and killed? It does not appear that Marcion points to any demigod different from the Galilean Jesus figure reported in the canonical gospels.


From the existing fragments of his canon, he only had one Gospel, which appears to have been similar to Luke. Whether this is a revision of Luke, or pre-dated it, it is probably unknowable.

Virtually everything in Luke pre-dates Marcion. If Marcion really had a special early "gospel" of some kind, and which Luke used, then it too had elements from the 1st century in it, and Marcion could not have been the author of it.

The stuff in Luke has to come mostly from the 1st century even if there are also some 2nd-century elements in the final canonized version of it. It makes no sense to say that the Gospel of Luke came after Marcion. Rather, the final version of Luke may contain some very late elements, but most of it is 1st century.

I didn’t say that the Gospel of Luke came after Marcion, or was dependent on Marcion. I stated what historians say. Which is that they can’t really tell whether the version Marcion had emerged in parallel to Luke from some “Q” source, or it was a modification of a copy of the Gospel of Luke. The problem again stems from the very fragmentary nature of these sources and the later copies. So what we end up with is a very foggy and hard to read record. You want it neater and tidier than it really is.

You're right that it's foggy. If I said that the gospel accounts are all neat and tidy with no messiness or fogginess to them, then I should be taken out and shot.

What I am saying is that we have only one figure in the historical record (all the documents available) depicted as a miracle-worker and for whom there are several separate sources and who cannot be explained as a product of mythologizing. Regardless how messy the sources are, they are there and there is no other reported similar figure who could perform the acts of power which we see attributed to Jesus.


As heretical works and groups were purged as the Church in Rome became more and more powerful, things tend to get fuzzier for heterodox elements.

The main distinction between the canonized N.T. and the "heterodox elements" is the chronology. I.e., the Church gave preference to the earlier sources and began purging the stuff that emerged later. This process of selectivity doesn't compromise the credibility of the gospel accounts.

That is true of many of the more divergent gnostic texts. However, like I already pointed out, this is not true of the Gospel of Thomas.

Only if you assume an early date for it, which is improbable. However, at worst you are saying there is this one early text that was purged out. But all the other texts that were "purged" were much later, from the mid-2nd century and later, meaning that they emerged entirely new in the later period. This purging does not cast doubt on the reliability of the gospel accounts that were included in the canon. In general, it is good to give priority to these earlier accounts. We don't know if the Gospel of Thomas is early or late, so at worst they might have made an error to exclude it. Maybe they mistakenly thought it was late. More likely they were right and it was late.


Nor is it true of this later “Church” grouping muscling out the Marcion group.

Whatever "muscling out" you mean, it is true that what was excluded (Marcion) was later and not 1st century in origin. And in any case, the mythic hero in Marcion was still the same Jesus Christ figure from Galilee.

The problem you have to solve is why it is that only this Jesus Christ figure emerges as a miracle-worker attested to in several separate documents within decades after the reported events, and we do not have others like him, i.e., other mythic hero or savior figures who did miracles, which is what we should have if it was so easy for such miracle stories to be attributed to a mythic hero as a result of mythologizing. Why only one and not many others competing with him, or many other new cults similar to the new Jesus cult after 30 AD?

Why not a John the Baptist cult, e.g., which attributed miracles to John the Baptist and made him into a god like the Christians made Jesus into a god? Or some other mythic hero figure? We should have several of them, if it's so easy for any charismatic bloak to come along and get himself made into a god and have miracle stories attributed to him.

You don't solve this problem by offering Marcion as a comparable Jesus figure. Marcion himself was a Jesus believer, not a reputed miracle-worker or rival to Jesus. Nor did he present to us any different figure who is comparable to Jesus.


In the end you want your version of the Christian theology to be credible, . . .

It's not "Christian theology" that's critical, but rather, understanding just what Christ, the historical Jesus person, was about, or what his power meant, assuming he had the kind of power depicted in the sources. Any accounting of this has to include an explanation of the "faith" or "believing" element that is so prevalent in the N.T. writings, and also the meaning of "euangelion" or good news or "gospel" theme, which is unique to these writings and which we don't find having any importance in previous writings from Greeks or Jews or other earlier sources.


. . . even though it sounds like you reject most all of the grand OT miracles of Yahweh, . . .

I've said that for miracle events we need at least 2 sources, not only one. Plus, the sources for them need to be near to the actual events. The OT miracle stories do not meet this standard.


. . . you reject the miraculous birthing narratives of Luke and Matt., . . .

Each of these 2 separate birth narratives has only one source. The 2 accounts differ totally. It's easy to explain how these stories came to evolve over time, after the Jesus figure had already become fixed. Virgin birth stories easily evolve and become fixed to an established hero figure.

The author of John believed that Jesus was NOT born in Bethlehem, but in Galilee (John 8:41-42). So the Bethlehem accounts were not widespread when the John gospel was written. And both Mark and John know nothing of the virgin birth. So yes, I reject the birth stories, because there is no reason to believe them. What's wrong with believing what is supported by the evidence and rejecting that which is not?


. . . you want people to only consider the numerical winning side of canon formation, . . .

The canon per se is not important. But the earlier writings are more reliable. Various "gospels" written a century or more later are less reliable than our 1st-century sources, i.e., the 4 canonical gospels.


. . . you seem to turn whatever you can’t explain as allegorical . . .

I said the birth stories are best understood as symbolic rather than as factual accounts. Most of the attraction to these stories is centered on the symbolism, including ideas of the "Messiah" being born in Bethlehem, to fulfill Jewish prophecy. But why does any of that matter? All that really matters is whether he had power, and still has power. Being born in Bethlehem and being visited by a million shepherds and wise men means nothing if he had no power. Even the star in the sky and the angels singing Handel's "Hallelujah Chorus" means nothing if he had no power. But the stories do have symbolic meaning.


. . . or just say ignore that part.

"ignore"? No, don't "ignore" anything.


Do you reject Matt’s false 3 14 generational lineages?

The "begats"? So-and-so begat So-and-so? You think those are important? They're factually accurate? I think it's interesting that the writer thought it necessary to trace Jesus back to David. Why did he want to do that? That's the important question -- not whether all those names are an accurate listing of all the ancestors going back to David.

E.g., why instead didn't he try to link John the Baptist back to David? This prophet figure possibly had a greater reputation than Jesus in 30 AD.


Do you reject the false ending of Mark? And why is it false?

I think most of the scholars today, even the traditionalists, say this was added much later, probably after 100 AD. Why? You think Jesus taught his disciples to drink poison? Why do you want people to think Jesus taught this? So you can poke fun at him?

The style and language of the text clearly points to a much later date.


Do you reject the false narrative of Joseph having to travel for a census?

Why are you so preoccupied with the birth stories? The census story is found only in Luke. Every problem text like this seems to be found in only one of the gospel accounts, with no corroboration from any of the others. It's a good rule to disregard a text that conflicts with other sources and stands alone without any confirmation from the others.


How do you mesh the 3 conflicting Jesus death-resurrection tales?

Though there are discrepancies, the 4 different versions of this do support each other in the general points. These are not like the Mt and Lk Bethlehem stories which give no support to each other except on the point that his parents were Mary and Joseph and that the birth took place in Bethlehem. On every other detail they disagree.

But the resurrection accounts agree or confirm each other on several points, though disagreeing on some minor details.

The worst disagreement is on whether Jesus appeared to the disciples in Galilee or in Jerusalem. Or if both, how did the disciples travel back to Galilee to see him but also see him ascend outside Jerusalem, which ascension event seems to be the last they saw of him?

A good explanation is that the disciples who saw him in Jerusalem were simply a different group of disciples than the ones who saw him in Galilee.

It could very well be that there was not a tiny inner core of only 12 (11) disciples who witnessed all these events, but rather that there were many more and that the prominent ones like Peter saw him in Jerusalem but did not also travel back to Galilee. The Galilee accounts simply filled in the details of who these disciples were ("the eleven") who saw him there, and in reality these were just additional disciples who went back to Galilee, or perhaps some who had never travelled with Jesus to Jerusalem in the first place.

It's not realistic to assume that all the close disciples of Jesus accompanied him from Galilee to Jerusalem. Not all these people had the means to make this trip and leave behind their livelihood and families, or take them along. It makes sense that Jesus would also appear to some of the ones left behind in Galilee.

So both the Galilee appearances and the Jerusalem appearances did take place, and the ascension took place outside Jerusalem, where the ones closest to Jesus remained. This easily reconciles the two conflicting versions of the appearances. We don't have to take every detail as accurate, i.e., that Peter saw the risen Jesus both in Jerusalem and also in Galilee, as though he went traveling back and forth to see him in both places. There is no need to insist on making every detail be accurate.

So John's account which names Peter and certain others as being in Galilee to see him is just John's attempt to fill in some detail. And likewise Matthew's "the eleven" which may be a part of a later tradition which instituted the "twelve disciples" (minus Judas), when in reality there probably was not any such institution of these twelve in 30 AD and this "twelve disciples" tradition or institution didn't come into existence until decades later.

And the remaining "discrepancies" in the resurrection accounts are easier to reconcile than this one. As long as we don't insist on trying to make every detail fit. Of course there can be errors in the minor details. That does not cast doubt on the overall general credibility of the resurrection event. We should expect such minor discrepancies in accounts that come from separate sources. It even increases the overall credibility, because it shows that the writers/redactors did not get together and collaborate to create the story.


Or how about the part about when Jesus was born?

We don't know when Jesus was born. All we can do is speculate. If we take Luke seriously he was about 30 years old in 29 or 30 AD.
 
(continued)


So the miracle stories abound, AFTER the Jesus event, when they seem to explode onto the stage. But what about before?

There's hardly any supply of these miracle-workers or miracle events in the mid-first century or earlier.
Christains have a history of stamping out the competition. Many of the gnostic gospels that we know about, we only know from their being named in letters written to report that they have destroyed all the copies of a gospel because it was gnostic, and that was not acceptable. Nothing to do with whether or not the author was known, or if the gospel was authentic or even true. It just didn't fit into their tender sensibilities as Christains.

Christains have defaced or destroyed pagan sites, monuments, records, stamped out stories, or changed them to fit inside the official Christain Narrative as much as they possibly could. And they've rewritten history to make their favorite occult tradition the only one that matters.

The Jesus myths did not 'explode' onto the historical record as you would have it. Christains peed on the historical record, much as you're insisting. Except where you just ignore all the countering evidence, they actively burned books and scrolls and persecuted pagans and outlawed languages so that the elders couldn't transmit their stories to new generations.
 
Gospels and Holy Books, narrative built upon oral tradition and hope for a Messiah, the Hero, the Savior, looking for signs and wonders within a natural progression of events and finding what is being sought for based on foundation of faith. The smoke and mirrors of minds in denial of the reality of a vast and complex World.
 
When someone made up Islam, suddenly there were lots of things written about Islam.

When someone made up Hinduism, suddenly lots of things were written about Hinduism.

We see the pattern again and again with countless religions, however in the case of Christianity, this is evidence that Christianity is true, but all the other cases of the same thing do not count as evidence that any of those other religions are true. This is because the logic of an argument is only valid if it is applied to the conclusion of Christianity. If we apply the same logic to any other conclusion, the logic magically becomes invalid through the power of God's love.
 
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