Why are the gospel accounts the only documents we have to reject as totally unreliable? Who says?
You mean, do we have the eyewitnesses available to question? No, 1985-year-old people are difficult to arrange an interview with.
Thus you are forced to invent odd and rather fatuous "superior standards" to make your favored account seem more likely.
What is my "superior standard"? that an extra source helps confirm or make more credible the first source? Don't two separate sources for the miracle acts of Jesus make it more credible than if there's only one? or 3 make it more credible than if there's only 2?
So you think having extra sources does NOT add credibility to an account? I.e., part of the "superior standards" -- having more than one source about the same event(s) helps to increase the credibility -- You reject that standard as "fatuous"?
E.g., I gave the example of Sallust being in agreement with Cicero that Catiline was a bad guy. So, since Sallust also accuses Catiline of treason, doesn't that increase the chance that Cicero was right in making this accusation? Though we have reason to doubt Cicero because he has his own political agenda, yet it makes his account more credible, i.e., increases the possibility that his judgment of Catiline is correct, that he has this concurrence from a separate witness to the events, and so it reduces the likelihood that his tirade against Catiline is just self-serving propaganda. Right? Doesn't extra source increase credibility?
Though everyone agrees that Cicero had a political agenda and tended to exaggerate in his polemics, doesn't it make his version more credible that we have an extra source to confirm it? You think this extra source does nothing to add to his credibility?
According to you it is "fatuous" to use that as a standard for judging a source, because having source 2 which agrees with source 1 does nothing to increase the credibility of source 1? And you reject all those scholars who say that because Sallust concurs with Cicero it increases the credibility of Cicero's judgment? You accuse all those scholars of inventing an "odd and fatuous" standard in thinking that the extra source gives support to the credibility of the first source?
And similarly you would reject the idea that the testimony of a witness is supported if a 2nd or 3rd witness agrees with the first one? That extra testimony is a waste of the court's time, if it adds nothing new but only confirms what the first witness said? So if you were the judge, you'd throw out that extra testimony, or instruct the jury to disregard it, because the testimony of the first witness is all that is legitimate and anything extra to confirm it adds nothing, and the jury is being misled to believe that any additional testimony saying the same thing increases the probability that it's true?
Without those, we cannot compare the later, written accounts of an event and determine if there were details lost, added or changed.
We can determine some of that. We can compare differing accounts of the same event and determine what kind of changes took place in the text, and these comparisons can help us answer questions about what happened.
No, they do not. We have no way to tell if any of the common elements were invented or not.
So in other words, the fact that both Cicero and Sallust say there was a conspiracy to kill some of the senators and stage a
coup says nothing about whether there was any such conspiracy, because this common element might have been invented? So their writings tell us nothing about whether there was any such plot? Just because they both mention the plot tells us nothing about whether there was any such plot, because it could be "invented"?
So, no 2nd testimony confirming the earlier testimony adds any credibility to the 1st one because
what they agree on could have been "invented"? Isn't the likelihood of the latter REDUCED by the existence of the 2nd testimony confirming the 1st one?
We cannot compare them to the accounts of disinterested observers, . . .
No doubt there were plenty of Romans who were disinterested in the squabbles among the senators, such as that between Cicero and Catiline. And since we don't have their accounts of this squabble, we should assume there was no squabble, or there was no plot by Catiline? We can't know about it until after we first find accounts from disinterested observers, and if there are none, then we must withhold judgment as to whether there was any dispute or any plot going on?
We can't know anything from history from any source because there might have been "disinterested observers" around who wrote nothing about it, and without their accounts we can't give any credibility to what is told in the source we do have? It has to be thrown out and disregarded because it's not accompanied by additional accounts from "disinterested observers" who never wrote any account? It's necessary to first find non-existent accounts to compare to the sources we do have before we can give any credibility to these sources?
How much of our recorded history would have to be thrown out because of this requirement that before any report can be accepted we must have non-existent reports from "disinterested observers" who might have written about it but didn't? Where are we supposed to dig up these non-existent reports in order to meet this requirement? And yet you say we can't believe any reports or any facts of history unless we first come up with these non-existent reports that the disinterested observers didn't write?
So virtually all historical documents have to be disregarded, because we don't have accounts from disinterested observers around who didn't write anything about it. So the history books are virtually all useless, because they exclude all those accounts that weren't written. "Fascinating."
. . . or an account which was not subject to the Christain efforts to edit the historical record (such as all the gnostic gospels which were destroyed because they were gnostic gospels.)
(First, your history needs to be corrected: Gospels were "destroyed" only in the sense that they were not preserved, and these were neglected NOT "because they were gnostic gospels" or any reason other than the simple fact that all scrolls did corrode and rot away unless someone took the trouble to copy them, and recopy them again, because the originals generally did not last more than 100 years, except in rare cases where they were secured in a condition that protected them from the elements. There was no network of book-burning squadrons, like in the movie "Fahrenheit 451," dispatched to hunt down and destroy all the gnostic gospels or other subversive publications.)
But it's true that very few gospels were preserved by being recopied, because it was not possible or feasible or cost-efficient to try to do copies of every scroll being written by someone.
And what was in those lost gnostic gospels that has been eliminated? What did those gospels tell us about Jesus that conflicts with the canonical gospels? Your point presumably is that these writings would undermine the credibility of the canonical gospels. But how do you know that?
We do have some of the gnostic gospels. The only one that might be early is Thomas, and even it is probably 2nd century. These writings are later than the canonical gospels and for that reason less reliable. But some of the Thomas sayings might be early-dated sayings of Jesus. Suppose they are early and just as authentic as sayings in Matthew or John etc. How does this contradict the general miracle events reported in the canonical gospels?
Some of the gnostic gospels also contain miracle stories about Jesus. But the important question is: Why did gnostics want to put their teachings into the mouth of Jesus?
You must answer this question if you're serious about the importance of these gnostic gospels. Why did they choose Jesus as their mouthpiece? Why was he so special that they thought it necessary to use him in this way?
The best answer: because he had a reputation as a miracle-worker messiah figure of some kind and therefore people would believe anything he said. And how did he acquire this reputation at such an early point after his death and after a very short public career? (Because of these factors he did not have a long-enough period in which to become revered as a hero to be mythologized.)
The gnostics could have chosen someone else to transmit their teachings. In 40 or 50 or 60 AD there must have been plenty of other messiah-type figures they could have chosen rather than this one who was not yet notable for anything special (unless you believe the accounts of his miracle acts). Even if he was one of several who were gaining a reputation, why did the mythologizers all agree on this one? The gnostics were not a singular united monolithic movement who all met together in an annual conclave to decide on such things as who to choose as the mythic hero mouthpiece for their teachings.
So why is it that in all the gnostic gospels it's this same Christ person who is presented as the holy sage or God Incarnate who reveals the Truth to the listeners? This same mythic hero figure is always there -- no one else. Why is that? Doesn't the fact that they couldn't find anyone else to be their mouthpiece tell you something about this Christ person? Doesn't it prove that he's unique and stands out from all the other hero mythic messiahs? not just in the 2nd and 3rd centuries, but throughout this period from around 30 or 40 AD onward?
We can draw some reasonable conclusions, but only the kind which still leave doubt.
If they still leave doubt, they're not conclusions.
There's always some doubt. Or usually. But that doesn't preclude drawing conclusions.
I have Will Durant as my authority that history is not just absolute certainties with no doubt. He said:
History is mostly guessing, the rest is prejudice.
We can reasonably conclude that the gospel accounts give an accurate picture of Jesus performing the miracle healing acts. There is doubt, but it's a reasonable conclusion because it best explains how he became mythologized into a god. Without the miracle events, it is virtually impossible to explain how he might have become transformed from a normal human into a god, which transformation the gnostics participated in, also transforming Jesus into their version of a god.
So there IS doubt, but these are reasonable conclusions. We can draw reasonable conclusions while still having doubt.
As stated before, historical records are evaluated based on who wrote them, when and for what purpose. Not knowing any of these for the gospels, we cannot use them as trustworthy historical records.
And what's an example of a document from history that is rejected on these grounds as having no historical trustworthiness?
You can't dictate to others which writings they can trust and which ones not. You are not the Appointed Overseer Censor who determines what is acceptable for people to believe and accept as reliable. You can personally reject them because you don't like some of their content, but don't pretend you're being scientific or objective or are stating a general rule that must be followed by others. Just say "
I cannot use them," not "
WE cannot use them."
Someone else can just as reasonably accept them as having reliability for determining what happened, while still keeping a critical attitude toward them. Scholars of that geographical area and of that historical period DO rely on the Bible accounts, including the gospels, to help them determine some of the historical events for which there is little or no other source. To reject this source totally as of no historical trustworthiness is ideological fanaticism.
Of course these writings are not in the same category as Tacitus etc., so one would reasonably have more doubt about them than about some other writings that are more conventional. But that doesn't mean they are "untrustworthy" for historical information.
Not all writings that are trustworthy for historical information have to fit into your personal subjective test which you impose, and then go even further by dictating which writings fit into your prescribed formula and which ones do not. Will you also issue an "approved reading list" containing all the sources we may be permitted to use?
And it's not really true that you know "who wrote them, when and for what purpose" whenever you read a history source. You may pretend you know this, but often you don't, or what you know is virtually zero. Just because you have an author's name doesn't mean you know "who" he is. And you don't really know in many cases when it was written and for what purpose, anymore than the gospel accounts. Those are often doubtful, and especially "for what purpose" is very subjective and debatable. Not every historian agrees what the "purpose" is, and yet the writings are relied on anyway, without pretending to know that kind of information with certainty.
What is another example of documents, outside the Bible, that are rejected as untrustworthy because they don't meet these requirements you're imposing here? Have you created a special category here for this one group of writings you don't like and thus want to exclude?
If there are some such documents, which report events as historically factual, as in the gospel accounts, but which are rejected as totally unreliable or of no value for the historical record, there has to be more than the reasons you've given here. Simply doubt about their origin is not enough to totally exclude them from offering any historical value.
Do you put the gnostic gospels also into this category? What about the Dead Sea Scrolls? They are all to be rejected for any historical value because there is doubt about who wrote them or when or for what purpose? You're wrong -- it's not true that we have to reject documents because there is this doubt about their origin. Such documents are examined and used to provide some answers, despite these doubts, to try to learn what we can about events or conditions of the time.
There are varying degrees of reliability, so you would have more doubt about this document than that one, but that doesn't mean the more doubtful one has no credibility for the historical record. Certain texts can be identified as problematic without meaning that the entire source is excluded as having no value. You can't impose this dogmatic standard on the gospel accounts only, as if they alone have to meet a standard that other documents do not have to meet.
I will cite here an incident mentioned in all 3 synoptic gospels which tells us that Jesus, at the time of the arrest and trial, had a reputation for possessing psychic power of some kind. We can piece together what happened by comparing all 3 of the accounts.
No, we cannot. We can examine the gospels to see if they're consistent with each other, but not whether they're consistent with history.
We CAN determine that the gospel accounts are consistent with history on some points and inconsistent on other points. That Herod Antipas executed John the Baptist is consistent with history, or is even
verified by history, whereas the decree of Caesar Augustus reported by Luke is inconsistent with known history.
When Durant said, "History is mostly guessing, the rest is prejudice," he surely meant that he himself was doing some guessing. And there is a difference between good and bad guessing. Our published history is mostly good guesswork, hopefully. But some of the guessing is not so good. And when we try to piece together what happened, there is some guesswork, but it's good to do this guesswork, and often we're right in our guessing.
None of them invented this incident, because they would have put together something that makes sense.
Which in no way means that there is a factual event behind the oral tradition they were cribbing from.
But the best explanation for the accounts we have of this scene is that there was an original factual event such as described here, with some confusion of the detail. Matthew (26:67-68) and Mark (14:65) each leave something essential out, so that the question, "Who is it that struck you?" (Mt) and the command, "Prophesy!" (Mk) loses its meaning. Why did they each leave an important element out? It's probably because it was not in their source. And why did their source leave it out? At what point did it get lost?
The best explanation would NOT be that someone made up this as a story, because if they're going to invent a story, they will not leave something essential out of the story, plus also it's not plausible that 2 invented stories would be so similar, i.e. the same story invented twice, in 2 different versions, each of which leaves something essential out so that each version by itself makes no sense.
So the best explanation is this: It's a real scene, and witnesses who saw it and reported it noticed it differently, one remembering only the blindfold, the striking, and the command "Prophesy!" (Mk version) while the other remembering only the striking and the words "Prophesy! Who is it that struck you?" (Mt version).
Both of these accounts are incomplete because of the part left out. This is best explained as something missed or not noted by each respective witness at the event, and not as something that got dropped out of the account later. Each witness would be shocked at the scene and report their version of it even with the unnoticed part omitted, but it's less likely that the omitted part got dropped out later. Why would an essential element of the scene get dropped out later in the retelling of it?
It's very plausible that one witness remembered one element and another witness a different element in the violent scene. Probably the striking and harsh command "Prophesy!" caught their attention, and then one noticed the blindfold (Mk), while the other caught the question "Who is it that struck you?" (Mt), and so each one reported what they noticed. They were shocked by the scene, though not understanding it totally.
No one is inventing anything here, because if someone makes up a story, they make sure to give all the elements needed for the story to be complete and leave no confusion about what is supposed to be happening.
So the best explanation is that it's a real incident, not invented, with the 3 elements: 1) Jesus is blindfolded, 2) he is struck, and 3) the command/question, "Prophesy! Who is it that struck you?"
This explanation is not the absolute truth provable with 100% certainty. But it's the best explanation, or this description of the event is most probably what happened. And it illustrates how the earlier sources and the final writers who used them relied on what happened earlier and didn't invent their own story.
You can dismiss it as "conjecture" or whatever, but "history is mostly guessing," and this is the best guesswork to explain this scene. If you don't have any better explanation, then you can't say there's anything wrong with this explanation.
The accounts of this must have come from the actual event, . . .
Bullshit. "Must have" is way too firm a conclusion from the evidence provided.
But it's easier or more reasonable to explain the discrepancy, or the elements left out in each account, as due to the original witnesses each missing something in an actual scene that happened, which they saw, rather than due to someone leaving it out in the retelling of the event, or due to two separate individuals each making up a story -- and two such similar stories -- in which they each left out an important element in the story.
So the final versions we have of this event "must have" originated from 2 different accounts of one actual event that was witnessed -- "must have" meaning that this is clearly the best explanation, or no other explanation of the present accounts explains how these accounts have arrived to us now in the present form that we have them. Do we need to split hairs on the precise meaning of "must have come from the actual event"?
If they're recording an oral tradition, that's the best you can say, that there was a story and all three heard it.
No, we can do better. We can question where they got the story and why at least 2 versions of it leave out an essential element without which the story is incomplete. If we can find a reasonable answer to that, especially one that is more reasonable than the other proposed answers, then we're justified in accepting that as the explanation, while at the same time recognizing that we're doing what historian Will Durant calls "guessing," which we're entitled to do.
The garble or clarity of the account cannot help us determine fact from fiction.
EVERY detail about the account can help us determine fact from fiction. If something is unclear, we can try to find an explanation for it. The best explanation is the one which best answers the questions raised. Finding good plausible answers, rather than answers which only create more confusion, is the way to change the guesswork from bad guessing into good guessing.
How can this incident be explained without assuming that Jesus had a reputation as a psychic of some kind who could see what's happening even though blindfolded? And we must ask: How did he acquire this reputation in 30 AD?
Again, humans do not need hundreds of years to simply make shit up.
But they generally do require a long time, at least generations, to make up the "shit" we're talking about here, because all the examples we have of someone being mythologized into a god (or into a psychic with power to see through a blindfold) with miracle stories becoming attached to them are cases where the one mythologized actually lived generations earlier than the mythologizing that took place. The closest to an exception is a sage at an advanced age who had already been teaching several decades prior to the mythologizing, or, at least a very famous or powerful individual with widespread public recognition (e.g., Vespasian), which obviously was not so in the case of Jesus in 30 AD.
So the evidence indicates you're wrong when you say "humans do not need hundreds of years to simply make shit up," because you can't name one example where such "shit" was made up in a short time. Or, the example of Jesus is the only exception.
It's also possible that it is an historical event, but not that it happened to Jesus. See the story of George Washington and the cherry tree. That's fictional. It did not take 200 years to establish that reputation, it was circulating within 50 years of his childhood. One theory is that the person who started telling this tale stole it from an earlier English tale about someone else.
This is not analogous.
First, it's not a miracle story, so that makes it easier for the story to get going and for people to believe it. And this incident before the trial of Jesus also is not itself a miracle event, where the guards struck him and one said "Who is it that struck you?"
But for Jesus to have a reputation as a psychic or a miracle-worker does require a long time in which he might acquire such a reputation. It doesn't require 200 years, but it requires that he have a widespread reputation as a public figure, which means decades.
Washington was a famous public figure at the time this story about him was circulating. Probably it began, or became attached to him, at a point when he was already famous. So this makes it similar to the case of Emperor Vespasian who is reputed to have performed a couple miracle healing acts.
But Jesus was not a famous public figure by the time of his death. The person to whom the stories become attached has to have an established reputation before the mythologizing can begin. This is the pattern of all heros who become mythologized.
Either way, having a story does not mean it's historical.
You could probably say that about half of all the historical accounts about anything: Just because the account exists does not mean it really happened. However, the existence of the accounts, reported as real events, is evidence (not proof) that the events did happen. If not, then you have to throw out much of what we all accept as historical fact.
The best explanation for the accounts is that the reported events really did happen, except that in those cases where we can easily explain the accounts as fiction, and where this explanation is more plausible, then the accounts are less credible, or the events are improbable. But you have to show something implausible about the accounts. You can't just say you don't like the accounts, and so therefore they must not have happened.
How could this be anything other than an accurately-reported incident?
Easy. Someone made shit up.
You could say this about a great deal of what we accept as historical fact. You could toss out all history books, or most of what's in them, by just saying, "Aaah, someone made that shit up." There's a lot of history that is difficult to believe. Or just stuff we don't like. Why not just toss it all out by saying it was made up?
Doesn't it illustrate that the writers or compilers of these accounts tried to report accurately what happened, based on their sources?
But no matter how much fidelity they used with their sources, that does not in any fucking way help prove that their sources were factual.
Again, you could say that about most of what we accept as historical fact. Just because the scholars use their sources with fidelity does not prove that their sources were factual.
You can't single out this one case, the gospel accounts, and say they are unreliable for this kind of reason. You have to apply the same standards to them as you apply to other sources.
We can distinguish: Some parts are problematic and less reliable. But other parts are just as reliable as the standard sources we accept routinely for the historical record.