Evidently Jesus doesn't agree with Lumpenproletariat either.
Apparently even many of those who believe they are working for Jesus will get the shove. Musta been 3rd Baptists instead of 2nd Baptists. Buncha heretics.
Did the actual historical person Jesus speak these words? This text makes sense as a rebuke by some believers against others many decades later, no sooner than 50 AD, when there were many followers and believers who identified with Christ
These words, taken at face-value, simply condemn those who do good deeds or preach in the name of Jesus. So just believe, but don't proclaim Jesus or do anything in his name. It's OK to do things, but never in his name. Anything you do in his name is "iniquity," and only pure silent belief is what he wants. Did the disciples follow this injunction against ever invoking his name or doing anything in his name?
The same Sermon on the Mount text from which this comes also tells us to be perfect like our Father in Heaven is perfect, also not to do any work, not to sow or reap, but to rely only on our Heavenly Father to provide for us.
It's easy to pounce on words like these and condemn all Christians for violating them. Why don't you condemn all Christians as hypocrites for refusing to obey his injunction to stop doing any work and just wait for God to take care of them?
Most or even all the "Sermon on the Mount" sayings can be understood best as words put into the mouth of Jesus decades later. Much of them, like the ones quoted here, are easily recognizable as criticism of believers, or early Christians, who need to have Christ speaking to them directly, as though he were there and chastising them for their weaknesses. By this point there is a large number of such believers or followers, maybe into the thousands -- unlike in 29-30 AD -- and the early writings got circulated around and were used for sermons to preach at them. Like some Christ-bashers today want to preach at believers about their phoniness and self-righteousness.
Putting words into the mouth of Jesus
When asked to perform a miracle, Jesus is quoted saying, "An evil and unfaithful generation seeks a sign, but no sign will be given it except the sign of Jonah the prophet." etc. (Mt. 12:38)
This was referenced by someone earlier -- but I can't find the post -- saying it reflects an attitude much later by followers who could not perform miracles when doubters demanded this from them.
Which is a good explanation of this quote, i.e., not from Jesus, but put into his mouth. But when? In my response to that post I might have pushed the date of this quote back too far. Here it is in a reconstruction of the Q document, from
http://homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~kloppen/iqpqet.htm :
Q 11:16, 29-30 The Sign of Jonah for This Generation
16 ·But‚ some .. were demanding from him a sign. 29 But .. ·he said‚ ..: This generation is an evil .. generation; it demands a sign, and a sign will not be given to it — except the sign of Jonah! 30 For as Jonah became to the Ninevites a sign, so ·also‚ will the son of humanity be to this generation.
It could be that the reference to the symbolic "3 days" was added later (as Jonah was in the belly of the "whale" for 3 days, so shall the Son of Man etc.) -- probably not in the Q document.
Since this "no sign shall be given" quote is in the Q document, and this is early, near to when Paul was writing, this fits well with the theory that after Jesus there was a demand for miracles that the disciples or earliest church community could not provide. And they put these words into his mouth, to rebuke those who were demanding a sign.
This shows that the disciples, even those who knew him directly, might put words into his mouth as needed, because they were saying he did miracles and yet could not produce any miracles themselves as they were being requested to do. This is strong evidence that the miracle stories are very early, not some later invention toward the end of the 1st century or into the 2nd century.
The Q document is generally regarded as early enough to have been produced by the actual disciples who saw Jesus directly, rather than later indirect witnesses. And the sayings of Jesus they recorded are closer to his real sayings but still subject to editing to fit the need of the new Christ community trying to expand and win converts.
How you can refute the above
Christ-bashers, here's a homework assignment for you (if you really want to make yourself useful): You can easily counter the above argument about the early origin of the miracle stories by showing that there was a strong appetite for these stories in the period before Christ. Starting from 100 BC up to about 30 or 40 AD can you find lots of interest in miracle stories? Were there many wonder-workers running around in Judea/Samaria/Galilee or the general region there, at about this period, prior to the Jesus miracle stories?
We see an explosion of them beginning with the Jesus miracles and then expanding further into the 2nd century and later. But what about earlier, leading up to 30 AD? Such an interest in this and a demand for miracles could explain how the Jesus miracles got started. Is there an indication of such an interest? i.e., a demand for them, to explain these Jesus miracles as the supply to meet that demand?
Even the Vespasian miracle stories and the goofy story in Josephus about an exorcist come a little too late. Can't you find me a miracle-worker or two in this earlier period? Why are they so scarce?
On YouTube Christ-basher Robert M. Price gives some Jesus "Parallels" showing other miracle-worker heroes etc., and one of them he said was an earlier hero, 1st or 2nd century BC, which made me wonder, shook my "faith" a little, but then I looked it up, and -- WOULDN'T Y'KNOW IT -- the writer of it was 2nd century AD. And it's the only source.