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According to Robert Sapolsky, human free will does not exist

The motor action, signals to muscle groups, etc, is already underway before we experience thought and deliberation
you leap out of the path of a car without [forward awareness of] thought
The thought still happens, DBT, the thought was still you, still happened according to a natural language encoding of "jump that way".

There is a will there and the fact that other things besides you offer our wills to more easily or promptly be chosen when they are chosen does not abrogate the fact that there is an agent that can and does put a pin in such on occasion and suppresses the primed pathway.

What you are describing here is akin to hyper threading in a processor, where to save time the system does multiple things in parallel and only keeps the result of the chosen action, because it's easier to prime both and choose while priming than to have to choose and then prime the system in addition to acting.

That my body has been automatically readied to jump does not change the fact that I am still the arbiter of that decision on whether to do it.
 
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No, it isn't simply will. It is will that satisfies needs, wants, and goals. If an agent can't do what it wants to do in an unconflicted manner, then choice isn't free. There is a difference between jail and freedom. You are ignoring the essential role of responsibility in resolving goal conflicts over time. Intelligent agents adapt to changing circumstances in a way that resolves those conflicts. They change strategies to improve outcomes over time. Autonomous freedom of choice provides the flexibility to learn and adapt.

Will is an inevitable expression of the deterministic processes that prompt or urge to us act conscious. Will is a part of the process of volition, not its driver.

The motor action, signals to muscle groups, etc, is already underway before we experience thought and deliberation.....you leap out of the path of a car without thought, the feeling come later, and so on.

First of all, I said that "desire" was the driver, not "will". The term will refers to the general capacity to make decisions deliberately rather than automatically. Desire is a part of will, and so is volition. You said that will was a part of volition, which I think reversed the relationship between will and volition. Deliberation or calculation--the process of making a choice based on priorities--is also part of will. Free will is will that is felt to be fully under the control of the agent--not forced by undue or unforeseen circumstances. When you trip over your own feet, the action may be caused by your voluntary behavior, but it isn't something that you do of your own free will. Free will is both a desired and an intended action carried out successfully.


We have will, we have intelligence, we have the ability to respond and act. We have a rational brain that generates conscious mind, the ability to imagine, plan and act, but these abilities - for the given reasons - have nothing to do with free will......used in common language, yet 'not very sensible concept'

You keep insisting that free will is freedom from any causal influence, not just those that impede our desires. That is where you go wrong. You see desire itself as an impediment, but that makes absolutely no sense at all. Unimpeded desire is essential to the definition of free will.

Where do I insist that? I don't know why I would do that. The claim here is that free will as defined by compatibilists fails to make a case because the compatibilist acknowledges that force, coercion and undue influence is a constraint on the idea of free will, yet brush aside inner necessity - which poses just as much of constraint on freedom of will as external agents

That was poorly phrased. To me, you appear to dogmatically adhere to the position that free will is freedom from any causal influence, but I think the problem is more subtle than that. In my understanding of your position, you define free will from the perspective of a third party observer with certain knowledge of the future rather than from the perspective of the agent facing an uncertain future. So it appears to you--from that outside observer perspective--that free will is an illusion. The future is known, so there never was a meaningful choice. Correct me if you think I got that wrong.


''I don't think "free will" is a very sensible concept, and you don't need neuroscience to reject it -- any mechanistic view of the world is good enough, and indeed you could even argue on purely conceptual grounds that the opposite of determinism is randomness, not free will! Most thoughtful neuroscientists I know have replaced the concept of free will with the concept of rationality -- that we select our actions based on a kind of practical reasoning. And there is no conflict between rationality and the mind as a physical system -- After all, computers are rational physical systems!'' - Martha Farah, director of the University of Pennsylvania's Center for Cognitive Neuroscience and a prominent neuroethicist.

Like you, she completely misunderstand what people ordinarily mean when they talk about free will. The concept of free will does not require one to reject a mechanistic view of the world. It is essential to an understanding of how autonomous behavior works in biological machines with brains that regulate behavior. Those machines are constantly adjusting and adapting behavior on the basis of experienced outcomes. They depend on causal predictability to achieve the outcomes they desire. Desire can be modified in the course of time, but it doesn't make sense for it to be under control at the time a choice is made. That is putting the cart before the horse. Desire is the horse that pulls the cart.

No she doesn't misunderstand. We know how compatibilists define free will, we know how Libertarians define free will, we know how it is defined in Law and how the term is used in general language.

Assuming that we know how compatibilists define free will, what makes you think that she was talking about that concept of free will when she said it wasn't a "very sensible concept"??? I read that quote (not having seen surrounding context) and get the impression that she thinks free will cannot be defined in a way that is compatible with determinism. When she says that you don't need neuroscience to reject "free will", I think she is talking as a neuroscientist rather than a layperson speaking everyday English. Hence, the topic sentence in my paragraph that you are quoting. Free will isn't a very useful concept from the perspective of a neuroscientist studying brain activity.


At this time we are arguing over the validity of the compatibilist definition of free will, where the nature of the brain as a parallel information processor must be considered.

How is parallel processing relevant to the discussion? It strikes me as a red herring.


And as Martha Farah said, when you consider how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc, the notion of free will is just not very sensible. Not compatibilist, not Libertarian or as the term is used in common language....where it may be fine to say 'he wasn't forced, he acted on his own free will,' but doesn't stack up if you dig deeper....where if it was that simple the debate on free will would not have been ongoing for centuries.

Lot's of sophistry has been going on for centuries, so I don't think that argument carries much weight. Do you honestly believe that people speaking ordinary English take into consideration "how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc" when they use the expression free will??? If so, you have reduced your argument to absurdity.
 
Does free will equate to freedom of choice?


Compatibilists generally recognize that determinism does not permit alternate actions, that the decision you make in any given instance is determined....which is why compatibilist free will is defined as acting without being forced, coerced or unduly influenced by others, that you are acting of your own accord, yet no alternate actions are possible in any given moment of decision making.
Colloquially free will and free choice are synonymous.

I do not not think it is possible to make a choice that is completely without influence or coercion in some form. Markeibg and advertising and pop culture in general get embedded in the subconscious. Choices to a degree are Pavlovian..

We are exposed to the environment from birth.
 
Does free will equate to freedom of choice?


Compatibilists generally recognize that determinism does not permit alternate actions, that the decision you make in any given instance is determined....which is why compatibilist free will is defined as acting without being forced, coerced or unduly influenced by others, that you are acting of your own accord, yet no alternate actions are possible in any given moment of decision making.
Colloquially free will and free choice are synonymous.

I do not not think it is possible to make a choice that is completely without influence or coercion in some form. Markeibg and advertising and pop culture in general get embedded in the subconscious. Choices to a degree are Pavlovian..

We are exposed to the environment from birth.
And yet the stuff inside is still not "the environment".

Where something comes from is immaterial to what it is.
 
Does free will equate to freedom of choice?


Compatibilists generally recognize that determinism does not permit alternate actions, that the decision you make in any given instance is determined....which is why compatibilist free will is defined as acting without being forced, coerced or unduly influenced by others, that you are acting of your own accord, yet no alternate actions are possible in any given moment of decision making.
Colloquially free will and free choice are synonymous.

Pretty much.


I do not not think it is possible to make a choice that is completely without influence or coercion in some form. Markeibg and advertising and pop culture in general get embedded in the subconscious. Choices to a degree are Pavlovian..

We are exposed to the environment from birth.

Yes, and if you consider the terms and conditions of determinism, all actions are necessitated by antecedents, the world, the environment, the events around us, with our inner condition interacting with the external world. Complex interactions, yet deterministic.....where the compatibilist defines free will, not as the ability to freely choose any option at any given time - knowing that determinism does not permit it - but 'acting without being forced, coerced or unduly influenced, thereby circumventing the absence of alternate actions.
 
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No, it isn't simply will. It is will that satisfies needs, wants, and goals. If an agent can't do what it wants to do in an unconflicted manner, then choice isn't free. There is a difference between jail and freedom. You are ignoring the essential role of responsibility in resolving goal conflicts over time. Intelligent agents adapt to changing circumstances in a way that resolves those conflicts. They change strategies to improve outcomes over time. Autonomous freedom of choice provides the flexibility to learn and adapt.

Will is an inevitable expression of the deterministic processes that prompt or urge to us act conscious. Will is a part of the process of volition, not its driver.

The motor action, signals to muscle groups, etc, is already underway before we experience thought and deliberation.....you leap out of the path of a car without thought, the feeling come later, and so on.

First of all, I said that "desire" was the driver, not "will".

Desire is a form of will. When you desire something, you want to have have it, you feel the drive to get what you want.

''We can define the will as the intensity and duration of investment toward some end goal or state. The will can be described from the bottom up as the animal drive, and from top down as self-conscious desire.''

The term will refers to the general capacity to make decisions deliberately rather than automatically. Desire is a part of will, and so is volition. You said that will was a part of volition, which I think reversed the relationship between will and volition. Deliberation or calculation--the process of making a choice based on priorities--is also part of will. Free will is will that is felt to be fully under the control of the agent--not forced by undue or unforeseen circumstances. When you trip over your own feet, the action may be caused by your voluntary behavior, but it isn't something that you do of your own free will. Free will is both a desired and an intended action carried out successfully.

The capacity to make decisions has absolutely nothing to do with will. Will is an aspect of brains capacity to make decisions, be they deliberate or automatic, but will is not the means of decision making.


We have will, we have intelligence, we have the ability to respond and act. We have a rational brain that generates conscious mind, the ability to imagine, plan and act, but these abilities - for the given reasons - have nothing to do with free will......used in common language, yet 'not very sensible concept'

You keep insisting that free will is freedom from any causal influence, not just those that impede our desires. That is where you go wrong. You see desire itself as an impediment, but that makes absolutely no sense at all. Unimpeded desire is essential to the definition of free will.

Where do I insist that? I don't know why I would do that. The claim here is that free will as defined by compatibilists fails to make a case because the compatibilist acknowledges that force, coercion and undue influence is a constraint on the idea of free will, yet brush aside inner necessity - which poses just as much of constraint on freedom of will as external agents

That was poorly phrased. To me, you appear to dogmatically adhere to the position that free will is freedom from any causal influence, but I think the problem is more subtle than that. In my understanding of your position, you define free will from the perspective of a third party observer with certain knowledge of the future rather than from the perspective of the agent facing an uncertain future. So it appears to you--from that outside observer perspective--that free will is an illusion. The future is known, so there never was a meaningful choice. Correct me if you think I got that wrong.

I am merely pointing out the fatal flaw in the compatibilist definition of free will. I insist on nothing. The flaw is quite obvious.....if external agency eliminates free will, force, coercion, etc, so does internal agency that is fixed by antecedents and non-chosen states and conditions as the system evolves from past to present and future states of the system without deviation. There is our constraint, just as powerful as force or coercion imposed by external agents.

I don't insist on this, it's just how it works given how compatibilists define define determinism

''I don't think "free will" is a very sensible concept, and you don't need neuroscience to reject it -- any mechanistic view of the world is good enough, and indeed you could even argue on purely conceptual grounds that the opposite of determinism is randomness, not free will! Most thoughtful neuroscientists I know have replaced the concept of free will with the concept of rationality -- that we select our actions based on a kind of practical reasoning. And there is no conflict between rationality and the mind as a physical system -- After all, computers are rational physical systems!'' - Martha Farah, director of the University of Pennsylvania's Center for Cognitive Neuroscience and a prominent neuroethicist.

Like you, she completely misunderstand what people ordinarily mean when they talk about free will. The concept of free will does not require one to reject a mechanistic view of the world. It is essential to an understanding of how autonomous behavior works in biological machines with brains that regulate behavior. Those machines are constantly adjusting and adapting behavior on the basis of experienced outcomes. They depend on causal predictability to achieve the outcomes they desire. Desire can be modified in the course of time, but it doesn't make sense for it to be under control at the time a choice is made. That is putting the cart before the horse. Desire is the horse that pulls the cart.

No she doesn't misunderstand. We know how compatibilists define free will, we know how Libertarians define free will, we know how it is defined in Law and how the term is used in general language.

Assuming that we know how compatibilists define free will, what makes you think that she was talking about that concept of free will when she said it wasn't a "very sensible concept"??? I read that quote (not having seen surrounding context) and get the impression that she thinks free will cannot be defined in a way that is compatible with determinism. When she says that you don't need neuroscience to reject "free will", I think she is talking as a neuroscientist rather than a layperson speaking everyday English. Hence, the topic sentence in my paragraph that you are quoting. Free will isn't a very useful concept from the perspective of a neuroscientist studying brain activity.


At this time we are arguing over the validity of the compatibilist definition of free will, where the nature of the brain as a parallel information processor must be considered.

How is parallel processing relevant to the discussion? It strikes me as a red herring.

I was referring to brain agency, the means by which we (the brain) make decisions, think and act.

And as Martha Farah said, when you consider how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc, the notion of free will is just not very sensible. Not compatibilist, not Libertarian or as the term is used in common language....where it may be fine to say 'he wasn't forced, he acted on his own free will,' but doesn't stack up if you dig deeper....where if it was that simple the debate on free will would not have been ongoing for centuries.

Lot's of sophistry has been going on for centuries, so I don't think that argument carries much weight. Do you honestly believe that people speaking ordinary English take into consideration "how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc" when they use the expression free will??? If so, you have reduced your argument to absurdity.

The nature and means of our ability to think and act is obviously not a consideration in common usage of the term free will, where 'he acted of his own free will' is just an expression that basically says ' he wasn't forced' Which is more or less the compatibilist position......which also doesn't account for the means and mechanisms of volition.



''Looking for free will in the brain not only is interesting for its own sake, but it is also important for understanding a number of neurological and psychiatric conditions.1 We can observe in patients with certain disorders that a relationship between movement genesis and a sense of volition is not mandatory. For example, people with Tourette syndrome often say that they cannot not act out their tics. With psychogenic movement disorders—also called conversion disorders or the old term, hysteria—the movements look voluntary, but patients say they are involuntary. In schizophrenia, movements also may look normal, but patients might say that these movements are controlled by external agents. In early Huntington’s disease, the apparently involuntary chorea (rapid jerky movement) is sometimes interpreted as being voluntary. And in anosognosia (a condition in which a person who suffers disability due to brain injury seems unaware of an impairment), patients may think that they have made a movement when they have not.

Do We Freely Choose to Move?

In general, scientists need to study what we call “simplified preparations” in which it is possible to control all the variables in a situation. One such experimental situation is making a single movement of the hand or finger. People can be asked to move whenever they want to; the commonsense view is that a person consciously decides to make a movement and then makes it. Free choice has preceded the movement.

Another whole set of issues revolves around the problem of the timing of subjective events. Consciousness can be deceptive, so is it possible that our sense of W, of willing a movement, is incorrect in regard to when it actually happened in the brain? A number of experiments have explored this. The results show that, first, W is not strongly linked to the time of movement onset, so whatever is going on in the brain at time W cannot be responsible for movement genesis.1 Moreover, the brain event of W may even be later than we subjectively report. This should not be a complete surprise since humans “live in the past”—certainly perception of a real-world event has to be subsequent to its actual occurrence, since it takes time (albeit very little time) for the brain to process sensory information about the event. A recent experiment showed that it was possible to manipulate the conscious awareness of willing a movement by delivering a transcranial magnetic stimulus to the area of the brain just in front of the supplementary motor area after the movement had already occurred.3 This suggests that the brain events of W may occur even after the movement.

If free will does not generate movement, what does? Movement generation seems to come largely from the primary motor cortex, and its input comes primarily from premotor cortices, parts of the frontal lobe just in front of the primary motor cortex. The premotor cortices receive input from most of the brain, especially the sensory cortices (which process information from our senses), limbic cortices (the emotional part of the brain), and the prefrontal cortex (which handles many cognitive processes). If the inputs from various neurons “compete,” eventually one input wins, leading to a final behavior. For example, take the case of saccadic eye movements, quick target-directed eye movements. Adding even a small amount of electrical stimulation in different small brain areas can lead to a monkey's making eye movements in a different direction than might have been expected on the basis of simultaneous visual cues.4 In general, the more we know about the various influences on the motor cortex, the better we can predict what a person will do.''
 
We can define the will as the intensity and duration of investment toward some end goal or state.
You could, but then you would be equivocating two very distinct concepts inappropriately and stepping outside of compatibilism.

Wills are not apparently goals, nor are goals wills. Goals are necessary to the creation of a will, in fact maybe the sum total of what drives a will to be created, and may be characterized or represented or tokenized by the statement of their goal, but the will is not merely the goal nor the investment, and trying to pretend like we ought accept that it is is the worst kind of straw man argument you could possibly make here.

A will is not merely a goal, nor the "importance" of that goal. A will, to a compatibilist, is the pathway to get to that goal in addition to the test to see if it has been accomplished.

The capacity to make decisions has absolutely nothing to do with will
I daresay it does: the capacity to make a decision is quite important to the execution of a will. In fact, a decision, a choice, cannot be made without the capacity to activate some contingent mechanism inside or out that drives the outcome. In short, a will cannot be free without the capacity to make decisions leading to that outcome. Your will might be satisfied without the need or capacity to make decisions, however your will will not ever in such a situation be satisfied by your own free will, because doing so was not according to some executed degree of personal freedom.

if external agency eliminates free will, force, coercion, etc, so does internal agency that is fixed by antecedents and non-chosen states and conditions as the system evolves from past to present and future states of the system without deviation
"If (coercion from outside) eliminates (the ability to execute algorithms generated inside), so does (the ability to execute wills generated inside)."

Your logic is not very convincing.

You should understand that the past ceases to matter at all to the present once it passes into the present. Those antecedent causes? They are dead and gone and worthless to the discussion of what is. They are trivial.

In the moment of the present, however, and considerations of the future made in the present, those still hold sway. As such, you can say "in the present, is the impetus for this decision inside this one small region of someone's brain, or is there something here or in the future which is influencing the decision from outside?"

The past is dead and gone, never to darken our doorstep again; it has no power here in the present, for all it is how we got here.



Anyway, three strikes is my limit for caring about a post, at least for today.
 
We can define the will as the intensity and duration of investment toward some end goal or state.
You could, but then you would be equivocating two very distinct concepts inappropriately and stepping outside of compatibilism.

Wills are not apparently goals, nor are goals wills. Goals are necessary to the creation of a will, in fact maybe the sum total of what drives a will to be created, and may be characterized or represented or tokenized by the statement of their goal, but the will is not merely the goal nor the investment, and trying to pretend like we ought accept that it is is the worst kind of straw man argument you could possibly make here.

A will is not merely a goal, nor the "importance" of that goal. A will, to a compatibilist, is the pathway to get to that goal in addition to the test to see if it has been accomplished.

The capacity to make decisions has absolutely nothing to do with will
I daresay it does: the capacity to make a decision is quite important to the execution of a will. In fact, a decision, a choice, cannot be made without the capacity to activate some contingent mechanism inside or out that drives the outcome. In short, a will cannot be free without the capacity to make decisions leading to that outcome. Your will might be satisfied without the need or capacity to make decisions, however your will will not ever in such a situation be satisfied by your own free will, because doing so was not according to some executed degree of personal freedom.

if external agency eliminates free will, force, coercion, etc, so does internal agency that is fixed by antecedents and non-chosen states and conditions as the system evolves from past to present and future states of the system without deviation
"If (coercion from outside) eliminates (the ability to execute algorithms generated inside), so does (the ability to execute wills generated inside)."

Your logic is not very convincing.

That's because you have yet to grasp what is being pointed out: the nature of determinism and agency.

No point in repeating the basics yet again.

You should understand that the past ceases to matter at all to the present once it passes into the present. Those antecedent causes? They are dead and gone and worthless to the discussion of what is. They are trivial.

Well, there you go, by now you should understand how determinism is defined and how it works according to the terms and conditions described in compatibilism (and your own definition).

Namely - to repeat what I shouldn't have to - past conditions set present conditions which in turn set future conditions as the system evolves from past to present to future states without deviation or possible alternate actions.

Causal determinism
''Causal (or nomological) determinism is the thesis that future events are necessitated by past and present events combined with the laws of nature. Such determinism is sometimes illustrated by the thought experiment of Laplace's demon. Imagine an entity that knows all facts about the past and the present, and knows all natural laws that govern the universe. Such an entity might be able to use this knowledge to foresee the future, down to the smallest detail.'' - Wiki


Anyway, three strikes is my limit for caring about a post, at least for today.

Whatever floats your boat.
 
Such an entity might be able to use this knowledge to foresee the future, down to the smallest detail
I have discussed, ad nauseum, the fact that this view doesn't in any way change that the actors within the system, if not manipulated at any point, still have the responsibilities and freedoms they had when they had them, as active participants in the system.

I have illustrated this with the thought experiments of a murder-bot.

I have illustrated this with the direct concrete experiment with Urist the Murderer in the Deterministic World.

It is is the murder bot which is responsible for murdering as it murders, no matter who is responsible for "making murder bots".

It is Urist who is responsible for the massacre in the dining hall, even if I'm ostensibly responsible for creating a world where he got rained on that one time and he took it so badly he became a serial killer and mass murderer. Even if I can calculate what the present leads to and then restore the world to the state of the present, that only tells me who is responsible for what when; it does not remove the reality of that responsibility, nor does the early responsibility erase the later responsibilities.

I might be responsible for letting Urist get a drop of water on him, but Urist is responsible for adjusting to that drop of water so badly that he murdered 20 other dwarves over his trauma.

Before he murders them he is not responsible yet for murdering them, because at that point in time he has not murdered. Instead in that moment he is actively responsible for PLANNING to argue and murder... And I respond to this by locking him in a room... But I can't really determine how that will turn out without simply calculating it and actually observing that causality.
 
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First of all, I said that "desire" was the driver, not "will".

Desire is a form of will. When you desire something, you want to have have it, you feel the drive to get what you want.

''We can define the will as the intensity and duration of investment toward some end goal or state. The will can be described from the bottom up as the animal drive, and from top down as self-conscious desire.''

The term will refers to the general capacity to make decisions deliberately rather than automatically. Desire is a part of will, and so is volition. You said that will was a part of volition, which I think reversed the relationship between will and volition. Deliberation or calculation--the process of making a choice based on priorities--is also part of will. Free will is will that is felt to be fully under the control of the agent--not forced by undue or unforeseen circumstances. When you trip over your own feet, the action may be caused by your voluntary behavior, but it isn't something that you do of your own free will. Free will is both a desired and an intended action carried out successfully.

The capacity to make decisions has absolutely nothing to do with will. Will is an aspect of brains capacity to make decisions, be they deliberate or automatic, but will is not the means of decision making.

I have no desire to engage in a semantics game with you, but you have to realize that the word "will" can have more than one sense. I originally said that desire, not "will", was the driver of free choice, because that component of the process is not under the control of an agent. If I were inclined to argue semantics with you, I would point out that none of your quibbles about its meaning are fully synonymous with the ordinary sense of desire or need. But that kind of dispute is terminological and not substantive. I suspect that you get my overall point: free will is about unimpeded willful action, but not all aspects of making a choice are under the control of an agent. Desires, needs, and goals are prerequisite parts of the deliberation process that give rise to a decision. The agent imagines possible actions that will lead to the most desired outcome.


...To me, you appear to dogmatically adhere to the position that free will is freedom from any causal influence, but I think the problem is more subtle than that. In my understanding of your position, you define free will from the perspective of a third party observer with certain knowledge of the future rather than from the perspective of the agent facing an uncertain future. So it appears to you--from that outside observer perspective--that free will is an illusion. The future is known, so there never was a meaningful choice. Correct me if you think I got that wrong.

I am merely pointing out the fatal flaw in the compatibilist definition of free will. I insist on nothing. The flaw is quite obvious.....if external agency eliminates free will, force, coercion, etc, so does internal agency that is fixed by antecedents and non-chosen states and conditions as the system evolves from past to present and future states of the system without deviation. There is our constraint, just as powerful as force or coercion imposed by external agents.

Your novel terms "external agency" and "internal agency" make little sense to me, and I'm not sure why you think forces that restrict choices "cancel free will". That brings me back to Churchland's point that you need to consider varying degrees of control to determine responsibility in an agent's behavior, so free will is more of a scalar than a binary concept. There are degrees of freedom, not just its complete absence or presence, in an act of will. What appears obvious to you is not at all obvious to me. And you still seem to think that "future states" rather than imagined futures are relevant to freedom of choice. When an agent deliberates an action, the future has not yet happened. It can only be imagined. Freedom of will doesn't exist in an agent's past or future. It only makes sense from an agent's present frame of reference when more than one imaginary outcome of an act is under consideration.

I don't insist on this, it's just how it works given how compatibilists define define determinism

Please get this firmly installed in your head: compatibilists define determinism in the same way that incompatibilists do. The issue is not how to define determinism. It is how to define free will.


...
How is parallel processing relevant to the discussion? It strikes me as a red herring.

I was referring to brain agency, the means by which we (the brain) make decisions, think and act.

I get that. I just did not see why you threw "parallel processing" into the mix, as if that were something we disagreed on.


And as Martha Farah said, when you consider how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc, the notion of free will is just not very sensible. Not compatibilist, not Libertarian or as the term is used in common language....where it may be fine to say 'he wasn't forced, he acted on his own free will,' but doesn't stack up if you dig deeper....where if it was that simple the debate on free will would not have been ongoing for centuries.

Lot's of sophistry has been going on for centuries, so I don't think that argument carries much weight. Do you honestly believe that people speaking ordinary English take into consideration "how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc" when they use the expression free will??? If so, you have reduced your argument to absurdity.

The nature and means of our ability to think and act is obviously not a consideration in common usage of the term free will, where 'he acted of his own free will' is just an expression that basically says ' he wasn't forced' Which is more or less the compatibilist position......which also doesn't account for the means and mechanisms of volition.

''Looking for free will in the brain not only is interesting for its own sake, but it is also important for understanding a number of neurological and psychiatric conditions. [Remainder of long quoted text removed...]


Your link to the Stanford PDF was broken, but no matter. You are going off on a tangent with your quoted text that has nothing to do with our basic disagreement. I'm not denying that low level neurological activity gives rise to emergent high level mental activity. Where I have claimed you go wrong is your tunnel vision focus on "the means and mechanisms of volition" as relevant to what people mean by the expression free will in ordinary English. It simply does not mean freedom from the means and mechanisms of volition. It refers to making unforced choices. All compatibilists do is point out the fact that people actually do act deliberately--i.e. base their actions on a process of mental deliberation. Ask them why they do what they do, and they will tell you what they think caused them to do what they did. The reason ordinary people talk about free will is that they are very much concerned with assigning accountability to themselves and others for their actions. Incompatibilism becomes a problem when cancels not just free will but an agent's accountability for its actions.
 
With some minor quibbles, I agree with the above.
 
It refers to making unforced choices
So, my understanding here is that DBT considers all choices to be "forced", since if you go back far enough, preconditions could not possibly be chosen by the person making the later choice.

The problem with this is that "forced" doesn't follow from "didn't choose preconditions". Rather, it ignores all the moments where certain complicated systems can, once they exist, direct forces against themselves to change their own state. It ignores the phenomena of relative autonomy and autonomous self-modification.
 
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First of all, I said that "desire" was the driver, not "will".

Desire is a form of will. When you desire something, you want to have have it, you feel the drive to get what you want.

''We can define the will as the intensity and duration of investment toward some end goal or state. The will can be described from the bottom up as the animal drive, and from top down as self-conscious desire.''

The term will refers to the general capacity to make decisions deliberately rather than automatically. Desire is a part of will, and so is volition. You said that will was a part of volition, which I think reversed the relationship between will and volition. Deliberation or calculation--the process of making a choice based on priorities--is also part of will. Free will is will that is felt to be fully under the control of the agent--not forced by undue or unforeseen circumstances. When you trip over your own feet, the action may be caused by your voluntary behavior, but it isn't something that you do of your own free will. Free will is both a desired and an intended action carried out successfully.

The capacity to make decisions has absolutely nothing to do with will. Will is an aspect of brains capacity to make decisions, be they deliberate or automatic, but will is not the means of decision making.

I have no desire to engage in a semantics game with you, but you have to realize that the word "will" can have more than one sense.

Explanations, not semantics. Will may refer to a number of things, yet the underlying means of cognition are not under the control of anything relating to will in its various functions and expressions.

The sole agency is the physical brain, its neural architecture, information acquisition and processing. W
I originally said that desire, not "will", was the driver of free choice, because that component of the process is not under the control of an agent. If I were inclined to argue semantics with you, I would point out that none of your quibbles about its meaning are fully synonymous with the ordinary sense of desire or need. But that kind of dispute is terminological and not substantive. I suspect that you get my overall point: free will is about unimpeded willful action, but not all aspects of making a choice are under the control of an agent. Desires, needs, and goals are prerequisite parts of the deliberation process that give rise to a decision. The agent imagines possible actions that will lead to the most desired outcome.


...To me, you appear to dogmatically adhere to the position that free will is freedom from any causal influence, but I think the problem is more subtle than that. In my understanding of your position, you define free will from the perspective of a third party observer with certain knowledge of the future rather than from the perspective of the agent facing an uncertain future. So it appears to you--from that outside observer perspective--that free will is an illusion. The future is known, so there never was a meaningful choice. Correct me if you think I got that wrong.

That's not it at all.

I don't 'adhere' to anything other than pointing out the fatal flaw in the compatibilist definition of free will in relation to the compatibilist definition of determinism.....where force, coercion and undue influence are acknowledged to be constraints for the compatibilist free will, yet inner necessitation is not.




I am merely pointing out the fatal flaw in the compatibilist definition of free will. I insist on nothing. The flaw is quite obvious.....if external agency eliminates free will, force, coercion, etc, so does internal agency that is fixed by antecedents and non-chosen states and conditions as the system evolves from past to present and future states of the system without deviation. There is our constraint, just as powerful as force or coercion imposed by external agents.

Your novel terms "external agency" and "internal agency" make little sense to me,

It should be clear enough - 'external agency' as in other people forcing, coercing or influencing you to act in ways that are contrary to your will, your desires, perhaps including regulations, laws, etc.


My error, I should have said 'external agents,' or 'external constraints'

and I'm not sure why you think forces that restrict choices "cancel free will". That brings me back to Churchland's point that you need to consider varying degrees of control to determine responsibility in an agent's behavior, so free will is more of a scalar than a binary concept. There are degrees of freedom, not just its complete absence or presence, in an act of will. What appears obvious to you is not at all obvious to me. And you still seem to think that "future states" rather than imagined futures are relevant to freedom of choice. When an agent deliberates an action, the future has not yet happened. It can only be imagined. Freedom of will doesn't exist in an agent's past or future. It only makes sense from an agent's present frame of reference when more than one imaginary outcome of an act is under consideration.


I don't insist on this, it's just how it works given how compatibilists define define determinism

Please get this firmly installed in your head: compatibilists define determinism in the same way that incompatibilists do. The issue is not how to define determinism. It is how to define free will.

Why would you say that, given I have been saying it all along? The point is that the compatibilist definition of free will is incompatible with the given definition of determinism.

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How is parallel processing relevant to the discussion? It strikes me as a red herring.

I was referring to brain agency, the means by which we (the brain) make decisions, think and act.

I get that. I just did not see why you threw "parallel processing" into the mix, as if that were something we disagreed on.


And as Martha Farah said, when you consider how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc, the notion of free will is just not very sensible. Not compatibilist, not Libertarian or as the term is used in common language....where it may be fine to say 'he wasn't forced, he acted on his own free will,' but doesn't stack up if you dig deeper....where if it was that simple the debate on free will would not have been ongoing for centuries.

Lot's of sophistry has been going on for centuries, so I don't think that argument carries much weight. Do you honestly believe that people speaking ordinary English take into consideration "how the brain functions, its networks, regions and lobes, how it makes decisions, etc" when they use the expression free will??? If so, you have reduced your argument to absurdity.

The nature and means of our ability to think and act is obviously not a consideration in common usage of the term free will, where 'he acted of his own free will' is just an expression that basically says ' he wasn't forced' Which is more or less the compatibilist position......which also doesn't account for the means and mechanisms of volition.

''Looking for free will in the brain not only is interesting for its own sake, but it is also important for understanding a number of neurological and psychiatric conditions. [Remainder of long quoted text removed...]


Your link to the Stanford PDF was broken, but no matter. You are going off on a tangent with your quoted text that has nothing to do with our basic disagreement.

It's not a tangent because the flaw in the compatibilist definition lies in the nature of the workings of the brain. But not only the brain, but the world itself as a deterministic system, where the compatibilist definition of free will accounts for decisions and actions being forced by other people, regulations, laws, etc, but not an actions production by deterministic processes, which is the very means of decision making, thought and response.


I'm not denying that low level neurological activity gives rise to emergent high level mental activity. Where I have claimed you go wrong is your tunnel vision focus on "the means and mechanisms of volition" as relevant to what people mean by the expression free will in ordinary English. It simply does not mean freedom from the means and mechanisms of volition. It refers to making unforced choices. All compatibilists do is point out the fact that people actually do act deliberately--i.e. base their actions on a process of mental deliberation. Ask them why they do what they do, and they will tell you what they think caused them to do what they did. The reason ordinary people talk about free will is that they are very much concerned with assigning accountability to themselves and others for their actions. Incompatibilism becomes a problem when cancels not just free will but an agent's accountability for its actions.

Of course it's relevant. As the brain, its state and condition, is the sole agency of volition, what people mean by the expression of free will in ordinary English does not account for the nature of cognition, determinism or how the experience of decision making, so called free will - as expressed in ordinary English - is being generated.

If it was as simple as common usage of the term in ordinary English, there would be no dispute and no debate.
 
yet the underlying means of cognition are not under the control of anything relating to will in its various functions and expressions
And yet again, Copernicus, this is why the recursion discussion matters. Yet again DBT is claiming cognition can't provision a force so as to adjust itself.

It would be like the claim that a starfish has no agency in reproducing itself because that would require the starfish to be torn in two and clearly a starfish can't tear itself in two, right?

Except that many starfish can and do exhibit this agency by using their internal strength and muscles to tear themselves in two.

The ability to direct force at oneself, especially given the immediate observation of that happening, is clearly possible, and it is this ability to direct self-modification (here discussed under the general banner of "recursive connection") that allows one to decide on whom they shall be on the basis of who they are. It will be "the person that they are, who is them" who makes the decision of who they will be.

This fully accounts for and proves out the regulatory control DBT thinks is lacking.
 
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I have no desire to engage in a semantics game with you, but you have to realize that the word "will" can have more than one sense.

Explanations, not semantics. Will may refer to a number of things, yet the underlying means of cognition are not under the control of anything relating to will in its various functions and expressions.

The sole agency is the physical brain, its neural architecture, information acquisition and processing. W

Again you return to the false position that compatibilists are like libertarian incompatibilists. Nobody here is arguing against the fact that mental activity is systematically grounded in physical brain activity. The argument is that the free will is not about freedom from the physical workings of the brain. It is about the judgment by an agent that choice among available options is not impeded, coerced, or compelled unduly by circumstances. Therefore, people can be held accountable for actions that they freely choose to make. It is not free will that is the illusion, but the feeling by some that all of their actions are predestined and therefore not their responsibility or fault. That flies in the face of common sense.

...
...To me, you appear to dogmatically adhere to the position that free will is freedom from any causal influence, but I think the problem is more subtle than that. In my understanding of your position, you define free will from the perspective of a third party observer with certain knowledge of the future rather than from the perspective of the agent facing an uncertain future. So it appears to you--from that outside observer perspective--that free will is an illusion. The future is known, so there never was a meaningful choice. Correct me if you think I got that wrong.

That's not it at all.

I don't 'adhere' to anything other than pointing out the fatal flaw in the compatibilist definition of free will in relation to the compatibilist definition of determinism.....where force, coercion and undue influence are acknowledged to be constraints for the compatibilist free will, yet inner necessitation is not.

I disagree with some things that you include in your term "inner necessitation". I have consistently maintained that needs and desires are necessary components of free will. You want to treat free will as an illusion because they are part of what you call "inner necessitation". And I define the choice as existing solely in the mind of the agent, not part of external physical reality. The nature of free choice is that the future is always indeterminate to an agent. The real problem here is that you don't really want to acknowledge the ordinary language usage of the expression "free will". It isn't just about how compatibilists define the term. It is about what English speakers ordinarily mean by the term. That term may not seem useful to the neuroscientist trying to understand how the brain works physically, but it is a very practical and useful term in the everyday lives of people.


I don't insist on this, it's just how it works given how compatibilists define define determinism

Please get this firmly installed in your head: compatibilists define determinism in the same way that incompatibilists do. The issue is not how to define determinism. It is how to define free will.

Why would you say that, given I have been saying it all along? The point is that the compatibilist definition of free will is incompatible with the given definition of determinism.

You appear to be going around in circles. You admit that compatibilism defines free will as compatible with determinism, and you sometimes seem to understand how they do that. Then you say things like "given how compatibilists define determinism", even though everybody defines determinism the same. Then you say you've been saying that all along. Then you say that there is some "given definition of determinism" that free will is incompatible with. I can't tell what it is that you are actually trying to say. Is it that compatibilists define determinism differently, even though you agree that they don't? Is it that they don't define free will in a way that is compatible with determinism as they define determinism? Is it that you define determinism differently than compatibilists do? :shrug:


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Your link to the Stanford PDF was broken, but no matter. You are going off on a tangent with your quoted text that has nothing to do with our basic disagreement.

It's not a tangent because the flaw in the compatibilist definition lies in the nature of the workings of the brain. But not only the brain, but the world itself as a deterministic system, where the compatibilist definition of free will accounts for decisions and actions being forced by other people, regulations, laws, etc, but not an actions production by deterministic processes, which is the very means of decision making, thought and response.

Compatibilists do not think of the nature and workings of the brain any differently from the way you do. They take reality to be the same deterministic reality that you do. It is simply not necessary to be a neuroscientist to define free will. For that, you just need a lexicographer. Neuroscientists may not find free will to be a useful technical term in their domain of study, but they aren't paid to study law, ethics, and morality or come up with voluminous descriptions of all the neural activity associated with such complex social behaviors.

I'm not denying that low level neurological activity gives rise to emergent high level mental activity. Where I have claimed you go wrong is your tunnel vision focus on "the means and mechanisms of volition" as relevant to what people mean by the expression free will in ordinary English. It simply does not mean freedom from the means and mechanisms of volition. It refers to making unforced choices. All compatibilists do is point out the fact that people actually do act deliberately--i.e. base their actions on a process of mental deliberation. Ask them why they do what they do, and they will tell you what they think caused them to do what they did. The reason ordinary people talk about free will is that they are very much concerned with assigning accountability to themselves and others for their actions. Incompatibilism becomes a problem when cancels not just free will but an agent's accountability for its actions.

Of course it's relevant. As the brain, its state and condition, is the sole agency of volition, what people mean by the expression of free will in ordinary English does not account for the nature of cognition, determinism or how the experience of decision making, so called free will - as expressed in ordinary English - is being generated.

If it was as simple as common usage of the term in ordinary English, there would be no dispute and no debate.

Bingo! It is as simple as common usage, because that is the only criterion we have for defining words and expressions. If you are relying on some special sense of free will that departs from common usage, you need to justify your special new sense of the expression.
 
It is nice to see someone else stepping in here. I am a bit exhausted! 😩
 
If it was as simple as common usage of the term in ordinary English, there would be no dispute and no debate.

Bingo! It is as simple as common usage, because that is the only criterion we have for defining words and expressions. If you are relying on some special sense of free will that departs from common usage, you need to justify your special new sense of the expression.
This has always been my bone of contention with DBT (I've 'discussed' free will with DBT over many years ;) ).

Although he never explicitly makes the claim, he does argue (and always has) as though he believes the sense of free will defended by compatibilists is in some way wrongheaded, mistaken or just plain incorrect. In doing so he implicitly advances the idea that there is a 'correct/legitimate' notion of free will (i.e. libertarian, contra-causal free will). He has always denied doing this but he continues to argue as though this is the case. Very frustrating.
 
It is nice to see someone else stepping in here. I am a bit exhausted! 😩

It's been exhausting for a number of years, yet it goes on.

Which is strange given that compatibilism fails on the principle of inner necessitation, where the compatibilist acknowledges that external force, coercion or undue influence constrains freedom of will (as an idea), yet the compatibilist fails to account for inner necessity, which fixes decisions prior to conscious thought or will....which is just as much a problem for free will as external elements.
 
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I have no desire to engage in a semantics game with you, but you have to realize that the word "will" can have more than one sense.

Explanations, not semantics. Will may refer to a number of things, yet the underlying means of cognition are not under the control of anything relating to will in its various functions and expressions.

The sole agency is the physical brain, its neural architecture, information acquisition and processing. W

Again you return to the false position that compatibilists are like libertarian incompatibilists.

No, I don't. Which is why I have emphasised the terms, that it is the compatibilist definition of free will in relation to the compatibilist definition of determinism (albeit identical to the incompatibalist definition) that fails because it does not account for inner necessity, that it is the non-chosen state and condition of the brain that determines the decision that is made, and the action that follows, follows necessarily, that you think and act as determined and not selected as matter of 'free will.'

Hence the carefully crafted definition of free will given by compatibilists that does not account for inner necessity because it inner necessity that falsifies compatibilism.


...
...To me, you appear to dogmatically adhere to the position that free will is freedom from any causal influence, but I think the problem is more subtle than that. In my understanding of your position, you define free will from the perspective of a third party observer with certain knowledge of the future rather than from the perspective of the agent facing an uncertain future. So it appears to you--from that outside observer perspective--that free will is an illusion. The future is known, so there never was a meaningful choice. Correct me if you think I got that wrong.

That's not it at all.

I don't 'adhere' to anything other than pointing out the fatal flaw in the compatibilist definition of free will in relation to the compatibilist definition of determinism.....where force, coercion and undue influence are acknowledged to be constraints for the compatibilist free will, yet inner necessitation is not.

I disagree with some things that you include in your term "inner necessitation". I have consistently maintained that needs and desires are necessary components of free will.

Needs and desires are formed through physical conditions and events in the external world. You see something you desire, say a nice car, the brain generates thoughts associated with owning one just like it, how it would look and feel, the pleasure you would get from owning one, so the desire/will to purchase becomes stronger. An opposing 'will' may form if you can't afford the price, or your partner does not like it, etc.

A cognitive process which has nothing whatsoever to do with free will.


You want to treat free will as an illusion because they are part of what you call "inner necessitation". And I define the choice as existing solely in the mind of the agent, not part of external physical reality. The nature of free choice is that the future is always indeterminate to an agent. The real problem here is that you don't really want to acknowledge the ordinary language usage of the expression "free will". It isn't just about how compatibilists define the term. It is about what English speakers ordinarily mean by the term. That term may not seem useful to the neuroscientist trying to understand how the brain works physically, but it is a very practical and useful term in the everyday lives of people.


I don't insist on this, it's just how it works given how compatibilists define define determinism

Please get this firmly installed in your head: compatibilists define determinism in the same way that incompatibilists do. The issue is not how to define determinism. It is how to define free will.

Why would you say that, given I have been saying it all along? The point is that the compatibilist definition of free will is incompatible with the given definition of determinism.

You appear to be going around in circles. You admit that compatibilism defines free will as compatible with determinism, and you sometimes seem to understand how they do that. Then you say things like "given how compatibilists define determinism", even though everybody defines determinism the same. Then you say you've been saying that all along. Then you say that there is some "given definition of determinism" that free will is incompatible with. I can't tell what it is that you are actually trying to say. Is it that compatibilists define determinism differently, even though you agree that they don't? Is it that they don't define free will in a way that is compatible with determinism as they define determinism? Is it that you define determinism differently than compatibilists do? :shrug:

It's been going in circles for a number of years. There are only a limited number of ways respond, and same lines of defense come up time and time again.

I said ''determinism as compatibilists define it' as form of emphasis, that I am not imposing any terms or conditions. That the compatibilist argument fails because of it doesn't account for all of its own terms and conditions.

Plus, in the past some posters have tried to differentiate between 'hard determinists' and 'soft determinists' in terms of how determinism is defined.




Bingo! It is as simple as common usage, because that is the only criterion we have for defining words and expressions. If you are relying on some special sense of free will that departs from common usage, you need to justify your special new sense of the expression.


It's not as simple as common usage because common usage, as with the compatibilist definition of free will, does not account for the nature means of production, just relates to surface appearances; that someone was not forced, that they acted according to their own will.

Which does not establish the notion that our will is somehow free.

Of course we can act according to our will;


''Wanting to do X is fully determined by these prior causes. Now that the desire to do X is being felt, there are no other constraints that keep the person from doing what he wants, namely X. At this point, we should ascribe free will to all animals capable of experiencing desires (e.g., to eat, sleep, or mate). Yet, we don’t; and we tend not to judge non-human animals in moral terms.'' - Cold comfort in Compatibilism.

So not only can we act according to our will, but as determined, even when not forced by external elements, we must necessarily act according to our own will.
 
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