DrZoidberg
Contributor
In Western civilization in the Middle ages, it was men keeping women from being educated and literate. That is like how white America kept slaves illiterate. What we're looking at is patriarchy. The thread should be titled, Are Men Hardwired for Patriarchy? since women didn't control policy. In colonial British America, only 10% of men were literate. But less women at 1%. Newspapers were abundant in 1789 and by a century before women's suffrage very widespread. There were still a monement to keep women uneducated. The first woman wasn't admitted to Harvard Medical School until the 1940's. Education is not a requirement to vote. Why? Because classes of people have been kept uneducated to keep them out of power.
I don't like this line of reasoning. For most of human history getting any education was a rare privilege. Not even all nobles learned to read and write 300 years ago.
200 years ago the vast majority were peasants and lived in abject poverty. They couldn't use an education even if they had one. It would have been a waste of resources.
It wasn't until the 20th century there was any point expanding education.
In this context saying that men kept women from getting an education because of patriarchy is silly. They also kept most men from getting an education. Where was the patriarchy for these men? Not much of a conspiracy for these guys.
What a surprise that we start getting feminism at the same time as the expansion of the middle class.
I'm not saying that women shouldn't have been educated before this. But it's a bit silly getting upset about unfairness in one dimension while ignoring unfairnesses in every other dimension