Jimmy Higgins
Contributor
- Joined
- Jan 31, 2001
- Messages
- 46,799
- Basic Beliefs
- Calvinistic Atheist
In general, one can easily say "Yes!" that Roe v Wade can be overturned. It could be banned. But it could also be shuffled aside and handed back to the states. But generally, this is looking at the problem inside a bubble.
Roe v Wade provided women the federal right to have an abortion. I don't think it is quite so simple to remove that right. I mean, SCOTUS has done some impressive bending efforts to ignore precedence or get an outcome they politically wanted. But when it comes to abortion, what is the basis for either saying:
1) the fetus has rights
or
2) the federal government has no say in the matter
or
3) ???
I would think promoting the concept that the fetus has rights would be going down an unblazed trail. It'd also require abortion to become illegal in the US. To say the federal government has no say in the matter... after ruling... and affirming that there is a federal interest seems even harder.
Griswold v Connecticut is a sort of iron sheet protecting, originally, wedded adults from government intrusion, based on the right to privacy. Wedded adults needed this because obviously (or maybe it isn't so obvious for some?), raising a child has a somewhat irreversible affect on a relationship. I refer to it as the most wonderful mistake you can ever make. Griswold allowed wedded couples the right to be able to handle procreation based on their choices. The rights here expanded beyond the bedroom of just married heterosexual couples in subsequent cases.
Roe v Wade builds on Griswold and extends it to the womb of the woman (of which most agree if it were the womb of a man... we wouldn't be having this conversation). Griswold was in part based on right to privacy, and the right to one's own body would seem the penultimate sense of privacy.
So if SCOTUS tries to punt to the states, the question becomes why? Why is the affirmed federal protection no longer a federal protection?
One answer is the fetus has rights. But if a fetus has rights, specifically, a right to live, then abortion can't be 'up to the states', it'd need to be illegal. Oh wait... SCOTUS can't do that, can they? After all, there is still "The Birth Control Pill" which is argued by some Talibamans that it is a drug that induces abortion, although very very early. So if Fetuses have the right to live, does that mean that birth control is no longer legal? Or is it only legal to 2 months, as per the limitations being put into the Alabama and Missouri laws.
Then the other is federal oversight on medical procedures isn't valid, and states can regulate it. This would be bothersome, because if Roe v Wade can go to the states based on a ham handed (but well worded) decision, why not Griswold? If the privacy of a two person party is held as liberty regarding having a child, how in the world can it not be for the single person that would actually have the child? And let's not make the mistake of thinking that Griswold isn't the actual target, fetuses be damned. After all, inter-racial marriages, there was quite a bit of bickering and a SCOTUS decision there. Gay marriage (not many abortions at all), yet fought against tooth and nail, heck, it was still criminalized in states in the 21st century! Teaching sex education in school? Fought tooth and nail. Yeah, what does it all have in common, sex.
So in general, the only way to deal with Roe v Wade would be to 1) ban it by giving fetuses the right to live which creates a bizarre issue of a fetus past 8 weeks has the right to live or 2) ham handed hand off to the states like a loose piece of yarn being specifically left hanging out to be pulled on to ban contraception.
Roe v Wade provided women the federal right to have an abortion. I don't think it is quite so simple to remove that right. I mean, SCOTUS has done some impressive bending efforts to ignore precedence or get an outcome they politically wanted. But when it comes to abortion, what is the basis for either saying:
1) the fetus has rights
or
2) the federal government has no say in the matter
or
3) ???
I would think promoting the concept that the fetus has rights would be going down an unblazed trail. It'd also require abortion to become illegal in the US. To say the federal government has no say in the matter... after ruling... and affirming that there is a federal interest seems even harder.
Griswold v Connecticut is a sort of iron sheet protecting, originally, wedded adults from government intrusion, based on the right to privacy. Wedded adults needed this because obviously (or maybe it isn't so obvious for some?), raising a child has a somewhat irreversible affect on a relationship. I refer to it as the most wonderful mistake you can ever make. Griswold allowed wedded couples the right to be able to handle procreation based on their choices. The rights here expanded beyond the bedroom of just married heterosexual couples in subsequent cases.
Roe v Wade builds on Griswold and extends it to the womb of the woman (of which most agree if it were the womb of a man... we wouldn't be having this conversation). Griswold was in part based on right to privacy, and the right to one's own body would seem the penultimate sense of privacy.
So if SCOTUS tries to punt to the states, the question becomes why? Why is the affirmed federal protection no longer a federal protection?
One answer is the fetus has rights. But if a fetus has rights, specifically, a right to live, then abortion can't be 'up to the states', it'd need to be illegal. Oh wait... SCOTUS can't do that, can they? After all, there is still "The Birth Control Pill" which is argued by some Talibamans that it is a drug that induces abortion, although very very early. So if Fetuses have the right to live, does that mean that birth control is no longer legal? Or is it only legal to 2 months, as per the limitations being put into the Alabama and Missouri laws.
Then the other is federal oversight on medical procedures isn't valid, and states can regulate it. This would be bothersome, because if Roe v Wade can go to the states based on a ham handed (but well worded) decision, why not Griswold? If the privacy of a two person party is held as liberty regarding having a child, how in the world can it not be for the single person that would actually have the child? And let's not make the mistake of thinking that Griswold isn't the actual target, fetuses be damned. After all, inter-racial marriages, there was quite a bit of bickering and a SCOTUS decision there. Gay marriage (not many abortions at all), yet fought against tooth and nail, heck, it was still criminalized in states in the 21st century! Teaching sex education in school? Fought tooth and nail. Yeah, what does it all have in common, sex.
So in general, the only way to deal with Roe v Wade would be to 1) ban it by giving fetuses the right to live which creates a bizarre issue of a fetus past 8 weeks has the right to live or 2) ham handed hand off to the states like a loose piece of yarn being specifically left hanging out to be pulled on to ban contraception.