Kylie
Member
Ah, I didn't know we could do the subscripts. Cool.Sure it can, if one of the conditions at Tn is the exercising of free will, so as to create the conditions at Tn+1.You say that I need to look at the state of the universe (how things are arranged within it) and the systemic rules (the laws of nature).And hence your problem, and hence my point: this is an inaccurate way of viewing the universe.The problem is that you assumed that when I said "the state of the universe" I meant simply the arrangements of objects within it. I did not.
The whole thing cleaves cleanly between "systemic rules" and "current state". That interface is exactly what you are ignoring in the discussion: you can not view these sensibly as the same thing.
I meant exactly what you described as being flat-out wrong.
The discussion of free will happens specifically because you can mathematically separate a function and variables.
Trying to pretend the logic of the universe is so "fused" to the state is where you will start to confuse "can't" and "won't".
When I spoke of the "state of the universe" I was referring to both of these things together.
Don't tell me that my way of looking at things is inaccurate when it's the same way that you are using. The only difference is how we are phrasing it.
Would you prefer that I phrase it another way? Fine.
When I refer to the "condition" of the universe, then I am referring to both the "systemic rules" and "current state."
Now, let me restate my argument from post 602:
Take the condition of the universe at point in time T0. Then take the condition of the universe at a later point in time, T1. If the condition of the universe at point T1 was determined solely by the condition of the universe at point T0, then free will can not exist. In other words, if you can take the condition of the universe at T0 and extrapolate it forwards and figure out what T1 (or T2, or T48267768590) will be, then free will can not exist.
The problem is that if free will is part of the condition of the universe at Tn, then it is impossible to predict the condition of the universe at Tn+1.
After all, if we could, then we'd be able to determine ahead of time the choices that people will make, and that means that the people making those choices MUST choose what we determined they would choose. And that contradicts free will.
So it's like a movie. If I watch Jurassic Park, I KNOW the lawyer is going to run out of the car when the T-rex attacks. If I rewind and watch it again, he's going to run every single time. it is impossible for him to do any differently. His actions are set in stone. The lawyer does not have free will.Well, obviously. Because that exercise of free will was both inevitable and necessary for the future state of the universe to be what it was inevitably going to be.And the reason for that is that if you were to rewind the universe back to T0 and let it proceed again, the same outcome must necessarily happen.
However, the illusion of free will would work in exactly the same way. We have two explanations then, genuine free will and illusionary free will. One is actually free will and one is not free will, we just think it is. How do you propose we eliminate one explanation?It's free will if it's a decision made within an individual's brain, without external coercion or force. That it will have an inevitable outcome is irrelevant, as long as the individual making the decision doesn't yet know what decision they will make.