Notice you are making a positive claim. Sure you want to do that? ExamineThat's easy. We do it all the time.
You may open your fridge door, for instance, expecting to see (evidence) a carton of milk that your partner said was there, but upon thoroughly searching every nook and cranny of the fridge you are dismayed to find that your partner was wrong, there is no carton of milk in the fridge.
The absence of evidence where it should be found (the physical presence of carton) is in fact evidence for the absence of the article.
The absence of evidence, where it should be found, is indeed evidence of absence.
Your objection is without merit.
Think of all the things that you yourself don't believe for the very reason that there is insufficient reason in terms of available evidence with which to form a conviction.
Hi, remez....just curious, do you have any objections to this?
p1) God exists
And
p2) God does not exist
If there is no evidence for p1, then the only rational course of action is to believe its denial p2. But of course you do not suggest the same treatment of p2; you don’t propose that if there is no evidence for p2, then our only rational course of action is to believe is denial p1. So why do you suggest this lack of parity between p1 and p2? What is your justification to treat them so differently? Couldn’t I just as reasonably say “If the arguments for atheism fail then there is no evidence for p2, then theism is rationally obligatory.” Your claim seems to be a case of mere arbitrary intellectual imperialism.
Back in the 60’s Scriven try to paradigm “the absence of evidence is the evidence of absence.” It was easily cast aside by even the atheistic philosophers. I think remember in one of the more recent Dawkins/Lennox debates Dawkins quickly stating that that he certainly was asserting the absence of evidence is the evidence of absent because that would be wrong.
The notion has moved on to “the hiddeness of God”
Further the second part of my challenge was to provide evidence for the early inflationary era. Woe to the cosmologist that asserts the absence of evidence is the evidence of absence in this context.
This is an important issue for me. What evidence is there for the inflationary era? If there isn’t any, then why does anyone consider it reasonable?
Again why does anyone consider it reasonable?
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