Because the cosmos is not eternal. Follow the evidence and reason.
. . .
It began to exist. What was it's cause?
more empty assertionzzzzzzz.
Blastula is right, there a mere assertion there,
Remez. You see, the cosmos may not have begun to exist - it may have
always existed.
It seems that our universe began to exist in its present form. It may be an offshoot of a previously existing cosmos,
(cosmos = all that there is; universe ~= all that there is). The cause may have been purely natural and physical, (inc. chemical),
by way of an eternally pre-existing cosmos, (and there is no reason to disclude the possibility of such an eternally existing state of affairs).
If you disagree, then you need to do the relevant research.
Parsed
Remez. You see, the cosmos may not have begun to exist - it may have always existed.
Lets examine your assertion and assumption. Ok what is your evidence for this assertion? Just the mere asstertion does not make it the better inference.
It seems that our universe began to exist in its present form.
It certainly does. Therefore the best inference from all the evidence we have now is the universe began to exist.
Before we go any further lets make clear how I'm reasoning that "began to exist". The universe(all space, matter, time and energy) began to exist means....
it began to exist from something that was spaceless, timeless and immaterial........
because "began to exist" logically means THAT which began to exist did not exist prior to ITS beginning.
It may be an offshoot of a previously existing cosmos,
My assertion to that is.................
that your assertion is some nameless model standing opposed to the best inference that universe began to exist. You are asserting some model that assumes there was space before space, time before time, matter before matter. So how is your model a better inference?
There exists no viable model that extends space, matter, time or energy eternally into the past. I'm willing to examine any model you put forth in comparison to mine.
(cosmos = all that there is; universe ~= all that there is).
This slight of definition conveniently renders the biblical Creator nonexistent or transforms him into a pantheistic god. Neither option properly addresses the biblical Creator that transcends the universe. I assert that is an immature way to run away from the debate, because he can't exist by your volitional definition. "He just can't exist because I subjectively define it that way." Even in a thread ironically created to question his existence. So if he can't exist solely by your volitional definition then why start threads or participate in threads questioning or mocking his existence?
The cause may have been purely natural and physical, (inc. chemical),
by way of an eternally pre-existing cosmos,
Again we have no viable model that can achieve your assertion. How could universe/nature exist before it began?
(and there is no reason to disclude the possibility of such an eternally existing state of affairs).
Wild possibilities do not displace the inference of the best explanation simply because you can assert one.
If you disagree, then you need to do the relevant research.
I call your bluff. Again I'm ready. Bring me a BETTER model, defend it and change my mind. For further clarifacation, I'm specifically asking you for a viable model that infers the universe is past eternal.