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Does "RIGHT & WRONG" mean anything, without God or Religion?

But what does it mean to say "all other circumstances are identical"? If each pain experience is unique to the person undergoing it, that means two people have different pain experiences. And that, if you aren't appealing to some NOM, means that those two people must have some physical difference in their brains. So all other circumstances are not identical. Whatever the physical difference is that causes one person to experience pain differently from the other, let us call that difference x. Well then, if x happens, you will experience y pain. What makes you think it's impossible to examine a brain and test for whether x is occurring in it?

Well, obviously, I meant all external circumstances ... or at least, I thought it was obvious. But, as you say, there must be "some physical difference in their brains". Which means that they experience x differently. It's not a question, though, of testing whether x is happening, but of quantifying x in an objective manner ... which, IMHO, is rendered unfeasible by those differences in the brain (or, as I mentioned before, in pain tolerance).

But the dolorimeter was testing for a response to the state of the skin, not to the state of the brain.

It was testing for levels of pain experienced, comparing in one series of tests with the childbirth subjects were experiencing at the same time - which was subjective by nature, and no way to calibrate an objective measure of pain.

Anyway, don't you think this is straying away from the original subject? It was an interesting side discussion, and maybe merits its own thread if anybody's interested enough (I'm not), but I don't think it's getting us anywhere on the original question of right and wrong.
 
Well, obviously, I meant all external circumstances ... or at least, I thought it was obvious.
I don't see the external/internal distinction as pertinent. It's an artifact of the level of technology at a given point in history -- we label what we know how to measure "external" and we call any circumstances too subtle for our crude 21st-century instruments "internal". Once we can measure everything and all circumstances are external, there'll be no basis for thinking somebody's experiences are knowable only to himself, apart from belief in souls or other such woo.

But, as you say, there must be "some physical difference in their brains". Which means that they experience x differently. It's not a question, though, of testing whether x is happening, but of quantifying x in an objective manner ... which, IMHO, is rendered unfeasible by those differences in the brain (or, as I mentioned before, in pain tolerance).
Only if you assume pain tolerance won't ever be measurable. If people have different pain tolerances there must be a physical difference in their brains that accounts for that, too. Why can't someone discover that physical difference and learn to measure it?

In any event, we seem to be talking at cross purposes -- using "x" to refer to different things.

Anyway, don't you think this is straying away from the original subject?
Fair enough. Moving on...


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Likewise the question of the age of the Earth. The Earth is as old as it is, no matter who believes what on the question. It's a matter of fact, and even if we calculate wrongly, the fact remains as it is, independent of belief.

Morality is a different kettle of fish. There, belief is all we have.
How do you know belief is all there is? Maybe whether some act is moral or immoral is a matter of fact too, and that fact remains as it is, independent of belief. You appear to be prejudging that question -- taking the nonexistence of moral facts as both premise and conclusion. You say you pointed out that morality has changed and you're surprised the thread is still live; but to those of us who don't assume your premise, it looks like all you have is an argument from personal incredulity. What is there that you can point out to Lumpenproletariat or to me, to show that morality has changed, as opposed to merely showing that beliefs about morality have changed?

Everything depends on the judgment of whoever happens to be considering the question, with the judgment of society at large superceding that of any individual in the society.
Moral subjectivists say that sort of thing a lot. It's a very strange thing to say, and it's one of the reasons moral subjectivists generally appear to not have thought through their opinions. In the first place, if belief is all we have then what can it even mean to say one judgment supercedes another? What, all beliefs are equally unsupported but some are more equal than others?

And in the second place, there isn't one of you in a hundred who seriously treats the judgment of society as superceding his own. For example, society at large -- practically every society -- judges that atheists should be so respectful of religion that we not even point out that it's wrong, while religious people are under no obligation to politely refrain from saying atheism is wrong. You, on the other hand, think it would be more appropriate for the atheists to tell the religious to shut up about it. You are treating your own judgment as superceding society's.

Thus, yes, corvee labour, as a placeholder for a tax system, was moral at the time and place, because that society deemed it to be so.
So would you also say, then, that burning people to death as punishment for heresy was moral at the same time and place, because that same society deemed it to be so?

In the case of "rape for fun" (of which, for the record, I do not approve), while I know of no society which ever considered it moral, it's not inconceivable that such a society could exist, one where women are viewed as nothing more than receptacles for the sperm of whoever wanted to use them that way. There have been many cases where rape was considered a useful act in waging war, and there are societies even today where rape victims are considered to be at fault and are punished for the "crime" of being raped. It's not such a mmassive leap from there to a situation where rape is heartily approved of, and seen as moral, by society at large.
Many societies have considered rape moral under a wide variety of circumstances. In backwards Pakistani villages it's considered moral to punish a rapist by having somebody, or even a whole gang, rape the first rapist's sister. Lots of societies don't even recognize marital rape as rape. But that's not the issue. The issue is, what basis is there for claiming the societies with these views aren't wrong?

But, you might say, that all comes back down to belief rather than established objective standards. Well, I say that in the case of morality, belief is all we have, lacking as we do any hard and fast measures by which to resolve moral questions. If we believe actions to be moral/immoral which were once believed to be the opposite, it's because we're imposing our own standards on the question, not because we have objective measures of morality which were lacking in that place and time.
There are a variety of questions that in practice come down to belief rather than established objective standards -- questions for which we don't know how to build a meter that will tell us who's right -- that only a complete kook would conclude are not matters of fact. A guy in a car runs over a pedestrian; the public defender says it was an accident; the public prosecutor says he did it on purpose; nobody can look inside the driver's mind and observe the fact of the matter; so the judge will simply have to judge. Belief is all we have. Is that grounds to deduce that it isn't every bit as much a matter of fact as the age of the earth?
 
The objective standard for right/wrong / good/evil upon which all moral/ethical judgments are made

They were wrong. It was not justified. Just because someone believes it doesn't make it so. Same as with scientific / historical facts. Whether they thought Lincoln was the first president or they thought it was right to fly the plane into the building. Both equally wrong.

And what if 9/11 stops the United States from starting another war in the future which would have otherwise have killed 500,000 Muslims? Would that make it right?

A net 500,000 dead increase over the number who would have died otherwise? That's a reasonable argument that might justify the 9-11 attack -- worth considering, analyzing, crunching the numbers.

However, it's not true that the 9/11 attack stopped the U.S. from doing that. I.e., it's not true that 9/11 saved a net 500,000 lives later. I.e., it's probably not true. Who knows? We don't have the absolute truth. But probably 9/11 did not reduce the future number of lives to be killed. It's highly probable it increased the future lives to be killed, but that's difficult to calculate.

We have to do our estimating, or guesstimating. So their act was wrong, based on the probabilities.


Is a US pilot dropping 60,000 pounds in 108 bombs from 20,000 feet upon a country on the other side of the world, evil? How many Americans would agree? How many Vietnamese would agree?

A similar number were killed in Korea. But millions of Koreans today are better off than they would be if we hadn't done it. It is difficult to weigh all the good vs. bad consequences, but that doesn't mean we can't know what's right/wrong in many cases. It was probably best to drop the big one on Japan, to end the war and save more lives overall. There can be disagreement, but that doesn't mean there's no true answer. Just because it's difficult to calculate the correct answer doesn't mean there is no correct answer.

And what if 9/11 stops the United States from starting another war in the future which would have otherwise have killed 500,000 Muslims?

Highly IMprobable that 9/11 did anything to reduce future lives killed. More likely increased the later number of lives to be killed. I.e., the NET number.


I noticed that you refrained from stating whether US pilot’s actions over Vietnam were evil or not. Work on those true answers…

It's difficult to calculate. Some good was produced by the U.S. action. It prevented Ho Chi Minh from ever taking complete power and imposing his land reform program, which probably would have resulted in a few million peasants being murdered, like Stalin and Mao, who were both idols of Ho Chi Minh, and whose farm program he wanted to imitate.

So if he was on a trajectory to follow their example, which he said he wanted to do, then it's a good possibility that the overal U.S. action produced a net good result.


There is an objective standard. It's because there's an objective standard that everyone agrees. The agreement is based upon the objective standard.

There is nothing that "everyone" agrees about regarding right/wrong.

Yes there is. I.e., 99% or 99.9%. That's a sufficiently-close approximation to "everyone" for this purpose.

Anyway, as you think that "there's an objective standard that everyone agrees" to, then please show us a copy of it.

An objective standard which everyone at least practices, and largely agrees to in terms of how they prove this is right and that is wrong. They probably don't like this wording, but they do calculate right/wrong in each case based on this:

Whatever produces the greatest net sum total of desire gratification in the universe, to all sentient beings -- and net sum total of pain avoidance -- is always the right course, or is a good thing to do.

Or anything preventing the above is always wrong or evil.

That's the objective standard for good and evil. And everyone follows this standard, when deciding what is right/wrong or good/evil, even if they say this is not the standard.


Shouldn't be hard at all in the modern electronic information age.

This was the standard thousands of years ago.


I'll keep asking you this now, until you either retract your silly declaration, or until you discover the pot of gold at the end of the rainbow.

I'm beginning to see it out there.


Likewise, murder is not wrong because people believe it's wrong -- rather, people believe it's wrong because it is wrong.

Try defining some that appears to be as concrete as one can get, aka murder, so that even 98% of the people would agree with the definition, and find out just how porous your idea of objective standards are.

OK, so let's abolish all the courts and the criminal justice system and prisons and police. When you agree to that, then you can claim there is no objective standard to criminal prosecutions and punishments.

I’ve noticed that you have quite the habit of thinking about issues in binary terms; and then trying to force the person debating you into adopting your hypothetical opposite binary position. It would be like someone being silly enough to argue that since one does not worship their God, then they must worship Satan. Kind of silly isn’t it? Nothing in my comments, or I dare say any comments by others on this thread, have suggested that there are no ethical standards by which we naturally socializing humans organize ourselves. To argue against the notion of the existence of a definable objective ethical standard set, does nothing to negate belief in subjective ethical standards as established by society.

You didn't answer the question whether you favor keeping the court system, and law enforcement system.

If you favor it, then can you give a reason why?

If not, then the only answer is that we are keeping it because to abolish it and have no court system and law enforcement system would eventually lead to a net reduction in the total desire gratification and to an increase in the net total pain/suffering to all sentient beings who would be affected by abolishing it.
 
The natural world shows little or no sign of the work of a benevolent god....

OK. But does good and bad right or wrong have any real meaning without religion? My take is that religion provides moralistic cover and ready rationalization for those who feel ashamed. No different from those who don't believe who need cover for their behavior who aren't devoted to some faerie though.
 
The natural world shows little or no sign of the work of a benevolent god....

OK. But does good and bad right or wrong have any real meaning without religion? My take is that religion provides moralistic cover and ready rationalization for those who feel ashamed. No different from those who don't believe who need cover for their behavior who aren't devoted to some faerie though.

I think the natural world is benevolent in that at certain times and in certain places it "provides" suitable habitats within which life can flourish. If you insist on freedom from pain and want then you simply ask too much. And it provides the best model for morality in that such a system should ultimately be concerned with the survival of our species.

If good and bad are defined by a God then a person is always seeking approval from that God for what is ultimately the selfish desire of obtaining some reward. While self-interest plays a role in species survival, it is not at the very heart of one's purpose.
 
The natural world shows little or no sign of the work of a benevolent god....

OK. But does good and bad right or wrong have any real meaning without religion? My take is that religion provides moralistic cover and ready rationalization for those who feel ashamed. No different from those who don't believe who need cover for their behavior who aren't devoted to some faerie though.

I don't think good or bad has any meaning with religion.

Authority-based moral systems are inherently arbitrary and the most extreme form of moral relativism imaginable. In an authority-based moral system, it doesn't matter what you decide, it only matters if you are obedient. It doesn't matter what you do, it only matters who you obey.
 
OK. But does good and bad right or wrong have any real meaning without religion? My take is that religion provides moralistic cover and ready rationalization for those who feel ashamed. No different from those who don't believe who need cover for their behavior who aren't devoted to some faerie though.

I don't think good or bad has any meaning with religion.

Authority-based moral systems are inherently arbitrary and the most extreme form of moral relativism imaginable. In an authority-based moral system, it doesn't matter what you decide, it only matters if you are obedient. It doesn't matter what you do, it only matters who you obey.

You're talking about Abrahamic religions. This only applies to them. Why not just say that, instead of "authority based moral systems". Zorastrianism under the Sassanids was highly authoritarian But it's process philosophy. So the good vs evil dichotomy doesn't make sense.
 

...
Likewise the question of the age of the Earth. The Earth is as old as it is, no matter who believes what on the question. It's a matter of fact, and even if we calculate wrongly, the fact remains as it is, independent of belief.

Morality is a different kettle of fish. There, belief is all we have.
How do you know belief is all there is? Maybe whether some act is moral or immoral is a matter of fact too, and that fact remains as it is, independent of belief. You appear to be prejudging that question -- taking the nonexistence of moral facts as both premise and conclusion. You say you pointed out that morality has changed and you're surprised the thread is still live; but to those of us who don't assume your premise, it looks like all you have is an argument from personal incredulity. What is there that you can point out to Lumpenproletariat or to me, to show that morality has changed, as opposed to merely showing that beliefs about morality have changed?
Other than beliefs about morality, what measure do we have of what is considered moral? As far as we are currently aware, there are no hard and fast facts about morality except what has been considered moral at any time or place. So I can show you what has changed in regards to what has been believed to be moral, but that wouldn't show that morality had changed unless we agreed that beliefs about morality are equal to morality at any given time or place.

Everything depends on the judgment of whoever happens to be considering the question, with the judgment of society at large superceding that of any individual in the society.
Moral subjectivists say that sort of thing a lot. It's a very strange thing to say, and it's one of the reasons moral subjectivists generally appear to not have thought through their opinions. In the first place, if belief is all we have then what can it even mean to say one judgment supercedes another? What, all beliefs are equally unsupported but some are more equal than others?
If morality is nothing more than what is believed tobe moral at any one time or place, then it would be the overall societal judgment of what is moral that supercedes other judgments. That's not to say that it would actually be the more moral judgment, just that it would be considered to be so.

And in the second place, there isn't one of you in a hundred who seriously treats the judgment of society as superceding his own. For example, society at large -- practically every society -- judges that atheists should be so respectful of religion that we not even point out that it's wrong, while religious people are under no obligation to politely refrain from saying atheism is wrong. You, on the other hand, think it would be more appropriate for the atheists to tell the religious to shut up about it. You are treating your own judgment as superceding society's.
Not at all. I'm saying that, if one believes one's judgment to be more moral than that of society at large, one should try to change the view of society concerning that judgment.

Thus, yes, corvee labour, as a placeholder for a tax system, was moral at the time and place, because that society deemed it to be so.
So would you also say, then, that burning people to death as punishment for heresy was moral at the same time and place, because that same society deemed it to be so?
No, I wouldn't, because I'm coming from a different standpoint on the question. But if I was a member of that society at that time, with that society's morality built into my education, I would probably consider it to be perfectly moral to burn heretics. That doesn't mean it would actually be moral, just that it would be considered to be so. Which is all I'm saying: that the morals of a given society in a given time and place actually become what is moral in that time and place, outlying thinkers notwithstanding. The very fact that this can be changed is, to me, evidence that morality is not some unchangeable, hard and fast certainty, but is the product of time and place.

In the case of "rape for fun" (of which, for the record, I do not approve), while I know of no society which ever considered it moral, it's not inconceivable that such a society could exist, one where women are viewed as nothing more than receptacles for the sperm of whoever wanted to use them that way. There have been many cases where rape was considered a useful act in waging war, and there are societies even today where rape victims are considered to be at fault and are punished for the "crime" of being raped. It's not such a mmassive leap from there to a situation where rape is heartily approved of, and seen as moral, by society at large.
Many societies have considered rape moral under a wide variety of circumstances. In backwards Pakistani villages it's considered moral to punish a rapist by having somebody, or even a whole gang, rape the first rapist's sister. Lots of societies don't even recognize marital rape as rape. But that's not the issue. The issue is, what basis is there for claiming the societies with these views aren't wrong?
In terns of hard and fast rules: nothing. There is only the fact of what is believed. This can be backed up by logical reasoning, by arguments concerning reciprocity or the effects on society, etc. But one single thing we can point to and say, "see? It's intrinsically wrong"? We don't have that. All we can do is persuade.

But, you might say, that all comes back down to belief rather than established objective standards. Well, I say that in the case of morality, belief is all we have, lacking as we do any hard and fast measures by which to resolve moral questions. If we believe actions to be moral/immoral which were once believed to be the opposite, it's because we're imposing our own standards on the question, not because we have objective measures of morality which were lacking in that place and time.
There are a variety of questions that in practice come down to belief rather than established objective standards -- questions for which we don't know how to build a meter that will tell us who's right -- that only a complete kook would conclude are not matters of fact. A guy in a car runs over a pedestrian; the public defender says it was an accident; the public prosecutor says he did it on purpose; nobody can look inside the driver's mind and observe the fact of the matter; so the judge will simply have to judge. Belief is all we have. Is that grounds to deduce that it isn't every bit as much a matter of fact as the age of the earth?
We can measure the age of the earth. We can't measure what goes on in somebody's mind (at least, not with any degree of accuracy. We can measure brain activity, but not the specifics of what thoughts underlie that activity). That's why we have judges in the first place, to determine questions that aren't simple yes/no, black/white, on/off zero sum games.
 
We can't measure what goes on in somebody's mind (at least, not with any degree of accuracy. We can measure brain activity, but not the specifics of what thoughts underlie that activity).
I broadly agree with your take on the subjectivity of moral evaluations, however our ability/inability to determine moral attitudes/pain sensitivity by looking at an individual's brain is a red herring (I think Bomb#20 may be sidetracking you).

That a single individual's moral attitude/pain sensitivity is an objective fact is undisputed (irrespective of whether this can be determined by looking at that individual's brain), but this does not bear on the claim that moral evaluations and pain sensitivities are subjective (that they vary from subject to subject).

Apologies if I've missed the point of your exchange with Bomb#20 about 'brain measurement' but, if you're still talking about the objectivity/subjectivity of moral claims then hypothetical brain measurement is an irrelevancy.
 
Morality is an evolving cultural adaptation to promote the survival of the species.

I.e., the HUMAN species. Yes, but it's not exclusively this.

There are humans who want to promote the survival of other species also. And this can mean a sacrifice of human benefit in some cases.

Some animal rights groups, or naturalists, have said (maybe superficially) that humans should be sacrificed for the sake of other species. Maybe they don't really mean it.

In any case, the survival of other species, not just our own, is also part of morality.
 
Morality is an evolving cultural adaptation to promote the survival of the species.

I.e., the HUMAN species. Yes, but it's not exclusively this.

There are humans who want to promote the survival of other species also. And this can mean a sacrifice of human benefit in some cases.

Some animal rights groups, or naturalists, have said (maybe superficially) that humans should be sacrificed for the sake of other species. Maybe they don't really mean it.

In any case, the survival of other species, not just our own, is also part of morality.

You guys need to read the Selfish Gene by Richard Dawkins. You've both fundamentally misunderstood the driving force behind evolution. It's not on species level, nor on group level, nor on individual level. These are all wrong.

No animal acts to promote the survival of it's own species. Members of it's own species inhabit the exact same niche as they do. Ie, those are it's prime rivals. We would expect that any species would have no qualms about murdering their same species neighbours. And this seems to be the case with humans. The hard part isn't to explain why humans kill eachother. The hard part is to explain when we don't.

Animal rights activists are just projecting. They don't want to be murdered and eaten, so they try to protect animals from it. This is just a quirk of human psychology. Remember, this human brain is still in Beta. It's going to do weird shit until all the bugs have been sorted out.
 
The Bible does not condone slavery. No ancient literature condemned slavery.

Premise - Slave owners are greedy
Premise - The bible condemns greed (root of all evil)
Conclusion - Slavery is condemned by the bible (evil.)

Observation - the Bible includes extensive rules on how to properly treat (and exactly how much one may lawfully beat) slaves.

No, it gives no rules on how much one may beat slaves.


Conclusion - The Bible says that it is proper to keep slaves, as long as you do it by the book.

No, it never says it's proper to keep slaves. It just doesn't explicitly prohibit keeping slaves. There's no ancient literature which condemns slavery explicitly.


Observation - Bible fans in an age where slavery is no longer acceptable will deny the plain text of their book until they are blue in the face, . . .

No, "Bible fans" know the Bible doesn't explicitly condemn slavery. It also does not condone it or sanction it.


. . . before they ever admit that it describes a morality that is no longer acceptable.

But it never condones it. Never says it was acceptable. It just remains silent on that.
 
''If you buy a Hebrew slave, he is to serve for only six years. Set him free in the seventh year, and he will owe you nothing for his freedom. If he was single when he became your slave and then married afterward, only he will go free in the seventh year. But if he was married before he became a slave, then his wife will be freed with him. If his master gave him a wife while he was a slave, and they had sons or daughters, then the man will be free in the seventh year, but his wife and children will still belong to his master. But the slave may plainly declare, ‘I love my master, my wife, and my children. I would rather not go free.’ If he does this, his master must present him before God. Then his master must take him to the door and publicly pierce his ear with an awl. After that, the slave will belong to his master forever.'' (Exodus 21:2-6 NLT)
 
We can be "certain" in some cases, but not 100% absolute certain.

Without any doubt you believe that the total net harm caused by the place being destroyed would be greater than the benefit.

You've already done the calculation, figuring in ALL those impacted far into the future, and you've decided that the total suffering/pain would exceed the benefit, factoring in everyone who experiences pleasure or pain as a result.

So you are saying that all we need, in order to reach an undeniable decision on whether something is right or wrong, is to know what harm is caused, and what benefits result?

Yes, but we need to know what the TOTAL harm and benefit would be as a result. And we can't ever have that total information. But we can make a good guess. So we can "know" (sort of) whether it's right or wrong.

But "undeniable" seems to suggest absolute certainty. There's always a small degree of doubt.

In some cases the certainty is just short of 100%, with maybe .01% doubt, so it's "certain" in the same sense that we're certain Julius Caesar was assassinated.
 
''If you buy a Hebrew slave, he is to serve for only six years. Set him free in the seventh year, and he will owe you nothing for his freedom. If he was single when he became your slave and then married afterward, only he will go free in the seventh year. But if he was married before he became a slave, then his wife will be freed with him. If his master gave him a wife while he was a slave, and they had sons or daughters, then the man will be free in the seventh year, but his wife and children will still belong to his master. But the slave may plainly declare, ‘I love my master, my wife, and my children. I would rather not go free.’ If he does this, his master must present him before God. Then his master must take him to the door and publicly pierce his ear with an awl. After that, the slave will belong to his master forever.'' (Exodus 21:2-6 NLT)

This doesn't condone slavery. It says what the rules are IF you practice slavery.

It doesn't condemn it or condone it. It accepts it as an established fact of the world at that time. And then lays down these rules for those who practice it, mostly imposing some limits or conditions on the slave owner.
 
''If you buy a Hebrew slave, he is to serve for only six years. Set him free in the seventh year, and he will owe you nothing for his freedom. If he was single when he became your slave and then married afterward, only he will go free in the seventh year. But if he was married before he became a slave, then his wife will be freed with him. If his master gave him a wife while he was a slave, and they had sons or daughters, then the man will be free in the seventh year, but his wife and children will still belong to his master. But the slave may plainly declare, ‘I love my master, my wife, and my children. I would rather not go free.’ If he does this, his master must present him before God. Then his master must take him to the door and publicly pierce his ear with an awl. After that, the slave will belong to his master forever.'' (Exodus 21:2-6 NLT)

This doesn't condone slavery. It says what the rules are IF you practice slavery.

It doesn't condemn it or condone it. It accepts it as an established fact of the world at that time. And then lays down these rules for those who practice it, mostly imposing some limits or conditions on the slave owner.

Of course it condones slavery. It's God. You're talking as if God is an unempowered minor prince that has to negotiate with his peers.

God didn't have any qualms about outlawing murder, talking back to your parents and making idols. Why didn't god accept those as well?
 
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