mojorising said:
I think the cultural definition of marriage (between a man and a woman) predates the legal definition.
When the laws were drafted they just used the term marriage assuming all pair-bonding would only ever be between a man and a woman.
As I said earlier, different societies had different names for different sorts of relationships involving sex. Some of those relationships have some legal status. Others did not.
So, I have two questions in this context:
1. What is your evidence that there was a single concept across different societies and languages that corresponds to the concept of marriage that the English word "marriage" denoted in Australia when the laws were drafted?
2. What is your evidence that the word "marriage" used in English today (in Australia) means the same as the word "marriage" used in English in Australia when the laws were drafted?
mojorising said:
Later on society accepted that homosexuals would want to have legally recognised partnerships. That is OK. But a legal partnership is not a marriage because a marriage is more than just a partnership. It is the binding together of 2 families with the likely prospect that children will be produced (yes there are exceptions). We should redraft laws to accomodate partnerships that can include homosexual partnerships. But we should not redefine marriage since it has a valuable cultural heritage as binding together specifically a man and a woman.
Apart from the fact that you oppose the use of the name "marriage", what other differences do you want the law to make between legally recognized gay partnerships and opposite sex marriage, and why?
mojorising said:
Keith&Co said homosexual couples can have children but I don't understand this point as they cannot really do it by themselves. They need help from other people. I don't think they should be allowed to have children at all.
Most homosexual couples who have children are couples of two women, and they have children from a previous relation with a man (some of them are bisexual, not gay, or they prefer women but they married a man earlier due to social pressure, etc.), or by means of assisted fertilization.
Of course, single mothers can do this too, and if gay couples are not allowed to register as two mothers - rather than one -, then the situation for the children is very unfair.
For example, suppose the biological mother dies, or is seriously ill and incapable of raising kids. Then, a blood relative of the biological mother may get legal custody, and the children who are already suffering the loss of their biological mother or her illness, will be pulled out of their homes by force, and given to people they may barely know, or even who morally condemn both women who raised them as their children.
In fact, they may even be separated from the siblings (even if not blood siblings) they grew up with.
Why would you want to ban a woman to legally adopt the children of her gay partner?
It's going to hurt a lot of children (I say a lot because that is common).
Additionally, there are cases in which gay couples (men or women) adopt children. But there is a catch: only one of them can adopt legally. The other person is there and rears the children too, but in case something happens to the legal parent (as above), again it's disaster for the children.
mojorising said:
2 homosexuals cannot produce a child through sexual engagement.
Neither can a single woman. But she can either adopt or use artificial insemination with semen from a sperm bank. Or she can have a child with a man who leaves.
But that does not mean she can't raise children as their mother, biological or otherwise. Two women can do it too, and actually do it, regardless of legal recognition.
mojorising said:
Is that the precedent for supporting homosexual couples adopting children?
Gay people can already adopt children. What you're banning apparently is joint adoptions, and the ban can have really bad consequences for the children raised by those gay couples without legal recognition. Or are you suggesting banning gay people from adopting?
Even so, lesbian couples would keep raising their children. Without legal recognition. Which is bad for the children for reasons explained above, and some others like the social stigma.
mojorising said:
That is not true. Females have historically been controlled by males since their reproductive capacity is a constrained resource and because men are physically stronger and want to protect their reproductive resource.
That is no longer the case but the definition of marriage did not change. The female just got more control of her half of the relationship.
The legal definition obviously changed. What is your evidence that there is a non-legal concept that remains across space and time and did not change?