mojorising said:
If you agree that men and women are significantly different creatures with different physical and emotional evolved attributes then it folows that the marriage of a man and a woman is significantly different to the pair-bonding of 2 men or 2 women.
Actually, that does
not follow.
If you think it does, I would ask you to present a valid argument from "men and women are significantly different creatures with different physical and emotional evolved attributes", to "the marriage of a man and a woman is significantly different to the pair-bonding of 2 men or 2 women."
That aside, a key issue is in which sense some differences are
significant. For example, a difference in height from 1.6m to 2.05m may well be a significant difference in one context (say, when it comes to playing basketball), but an insignificant one in a different context (i.e., when it comes to playing chess).
For example, it may well be that when two women have a pair-bonding relationship, the way in which they relate to one another is psychologically very similar to the way in which a woman would usually relate to a man, in terms of sexual attraction, trust, friendship, and so on.
Why would then the difference in sex would be different when it comes to the use of a word, or when it comes to adoption?
mojorising said:
1. Cultural - The cultural heritage (which I know you don't believe in) of marriage as between a man and a woman is something of inherent value and should not be redefined. Homosexuals can create a new cultural meme for their pair-bonding rituals.
a. In which sense do you mean it's of "inherent value"?
b. Who is behaving immorally if the word "marriage" refers to some same-sex relationships as well? (i.e., who is the person who shouldn't redefine the word, but does or did).
c. What is your evidence that the English word "marriage" (and related words like "marry", "spouse", etc.) does not
already refer to some same-sex relationships?
Going by the way in which most people appear to use the word, it seems that it does refer to some same-sex relationships already. What is your linguistic evidence to the contrary?
Let me try to give you an direct example.
In this
Wikipedia page on Portia de Rossi, Ellen DeGeneres appears listed as "spouse". Moreover, it says that they got married in 2008.
You seem to be implying that those are errors in the Wikipedia page, that they're not married, etc. What is your linguistic evidence in support of that conclusion?
I'm not talking about evidence about how people used the word "marriage" (or some other words in other languages in the past), but about how native English speakers use the words in the present-day world.
mojorising said:
2. Legal - Extending the original legal definition of marriage to include homosexuals gives them access to rights which I think they have no claim to, particularly in relation to adoption of children (since we do not understand the causes of homosexuality yet) - I know you disagree with this. Laws already exist or can be created to cater for their needs w.r.t. their pair-bonding activities.
You still insist on the issue of the causes. I already pointed out that when it comes to adoption, the causes of homosexuality and/or bisexuality only would matter indirectly, in relation to their fitness as parents.
As long as there is no good reason to suspect that they would not be fit as parents (and you're free to provide them), then there is no good reason not to allow them to adopt children.
How does the causes factor into your equation?
mojorising said:
3. Distaste - I maintain (without any proof, it is my intuited belief) that, even if they don't want to admit it, for fear of being seen as bigoted, that most heterosexual people (men in particular) actually find it distasteful to have to watch 2 members of their own sex kissing and cuddling in public.
The last point is not in relation to marriage but in relation to rights (or just social rules) regarding public displays of affection. We have general 'indecency' and 'lewdness' laws which are vary vague and can cover anything or nothing according to interpretation but I think the laws should be sexuality-specific and be more strict with regard to homosexual displays of affection due to the offence I believe that they cause.
But even if that were the case, for that matter it may well be that in some states of the US, most men find it distasteful to have to watch a White woman and a Black man kissing and cuddling in public. But surely, that's no good reason to ban interracial marriage. They should deal with it. Why should the matter be handled differently in the case of same-sex public displays of affection?
ETA: nor is the taste of those men a good reason to ban the displays of affection in question.