mojorising said:
I just don't get a sense of open and free enquiry from the current political mood. I get the feeling that studies are funded on the understanding that the only politically acceptable outcome is reached, which is one that supports the homosexual political juggernaut.
You seem to be doing just that with regard to some of your claims (e.g., the semantic claim), only in the opposite direction.
That said, clearly there are people who support gay rights but don't have good evidence or arguments for some of their beliefs, and are acting in a way that is epistemically unjustified - though at least, they're supporting the right side -; it seems plausible that that may have infected some studies, though if you claim that most or even all of the studies are in that situation, I would ask for evidence to back up the claim.
mojorising said:
I think homosexual couples adopting is acceptable but heterosexual couples should be first in line as they usually are. If homosexual partnership is promoted to legal marriage it will become illegal to make a distinction in the case of adoption which is one of the reasons why I am against it.
Again, it's already illegal in parts of Australia without marriage, and also, even with marriage, it would not become illegal to discriminate if the law says it's okay. If there are good reasons for discriminating against gay couples in that regard, then that would not be a good reason not to accept gay marriage - rather, it would be a good reason to modify the law in those parts of Australia that ban such discrimination, and also a good reason to modify the law to allow such discrimination when gay marriage is also allowed.
mojorising said:
Angra it is possible to argue almost anything if you try hard enough. Many of the the countries of the world (including Australia) are engaged in a debate about whether to redefine marriage to include homosexual partnership. That is the debate I am engaged in. If you want to argue that this debate is redundant since, for the reasons you given, it is already marriage, then that is maybe an interesting intellectual exercise but I am more interested in the practical debate about the (as yet unimplemented) proposed change to legislation.
While it's possible to argue anything if you try hard enough, I'm actually arguing sensibly and on point. You're just dismissing my sensible arguments. And you're actually misrepresenting my points now, even if you don't realize that. So, I will proceed to clarify what happened, at least for the benefit of readers - at this point, I don't have much hope you'll even read my posts seriously. If you did, at least you would probably not misunderstand them so much.
First, of course I do know that there is a debate about whether to redefine the
legal concept of marriage in Australia.
Legal concepts of marriage have already been redefined in some places - such as the United Kingdom and Ireland (not in force yet). Legal terms in other languages have also been redefined in some places (e.g., in Uruguay and Argentina, "matrimonio" has been redefined).
In Australia, however, the legal word "marriage" has not been redefined, and does not include any homosexual partnerships as far as I can tell.
My arguments in those parts of my posts are not about the
legal concept of marriage.
Rather, I'm arguing that the colloquial, ordinary sense of the word "marriage" in English already [very probably] includes some homosexual partnerships, either because the meaning changed (it was "redefined" if you like, but the term "redefined" suggests a deliberate action, and that does not seem to have been the case, at least for most people), or because it already included some homosexual partnerships but most people had not realized that yet, probably (if that's what happened) because most of them hadn't thought about homosexual partnerships in the first place, and others had a very distorted view of them, etc. But one way or another, it seems very probable that the concept of marriage in English (at least, the most common colloquial concept, legal concepts aside) already includes some homosexual partnerships.
Now, the argument I'm making is relevant to the matter at hand regardless of what other people (in Australia or somewhere else) are discussing, because
you brought up that subject when you chose to make a claim ancient concepts that allegedly continue to be used today (at least by most) and allegedly exclude same-sex relationships. If you had been talking only about whether to redefine the legal concept of marriage in Australia (i.e., reasons for or against), and you had left aside the claim about the alleged ancient meaning of the word "marriage" - which you claim or imply is still the colloquial meaning in English, and exclude all same-sex partnerships -, then I wouldn't have replied to that particular claim of yours.
But you insisted - and
still insist! - on that claim, and indeed when
I offered a rather detailed critique of some of your claims (to add to the several ones I posted before),
the semantic issue is the only one you chose to reply to.
So, I posted an objection to your arguments based on semantic claims
here, but you failed to see the relevance of my objection, and even dismissed my arguments as an "intellectual exercise", when in reality I was addressing one of your main claims - the only one that you had apparently chosen to discuss with me.
Of course, I'm not arguing that the semantic debate is redundant, either. That you seem to think I am only indicates that you
keep missing my points (and, sorry, you keep thinking my points are weak while in reality I've been seriously debunking your main claims for a while).
In fact, I know that the debate about whether the colloquial sense of "marriage" already includes homosexual relationships is not redundant in the context of a debate in which one of the people involved (namely, you) claims or implies that it does not include any of them, and uses that claim or implication (in addition to a claim about ancient concepts) to attempt to support some of his proposed courses of action. I reject your semantic claim, and gave arguments against it. That's not to argue that the semantic debate is redundant. That's actually
to debate the point.
So, if your belief that I want to argue that the debate is redundant (you use an "if", but in context, you're implying I want to argue that it's redundant for the reasons you specify, and moreover, that I've been arguing that) is about the semantic debate, your belief about what I'm doing is both unjustified and false.
On the other hand, if you're not talking about the semantic debate but about the debate on whether or not Australia would be more just if the
legal concept were changed (or whether lawmakers should change it, etc), of course - it's clear if you read my posts seriously -, I didn't suggest or argue that the debate was redundant, either, so your belief about what I want to argue is still both unjustified and false.