• Welcome to the new Internet Infidels Discussion Board, formerly Talk Freethought.

Infinte Regress Timeline...

See, there you go again mixing them up! By number, do you mean 'amount'?

You do know it is possible to use different words to describe the same thing?
Sure it is. But it does risk confusion, and it is important to be very specific if you are trying to demonstrate that something is 'illogical', so as to avoid the fallacy of equivocation - which is a logical fallacy, even if it is accidental.

Infinite time is a number of days without end. It is an amount of days without end. It is an amount of time without end.
Yes, as long as 'end' here means 'bound' and does not imply direction.

Infinite time is a number of days that never finish. It is an amount of days that never finish. It is an amount of time that never finishes.
No, because 'finish' does imply direction. So for this sentence to be correct, every instance of the word 'finish' needs to be replaced with the phrase 'finish, or start, or both'.

What is the difference?
The difference is that 'Finish' means 'end', but 'end' can mean EITHER 'finish' OR 'start'; by changing from a directionless term, to one that implies direction, you have changed the meaning.

If the number of days in the past never have a finish, how did they finish today?

If by 'number' you mean 'amount', then they didn't - by your definition, they started today, and never finish.

You confuse completely different concepts.
One of us does. I am confident that it isn't me.

I only use the concept of "an amount" of time to try to understand what is meant by time with "no start".

So you have to begin looking at the amount of time at the present because you can't begin looking at an amount from "no start".
Fair enough. If we look at it that way, then the past, if it is infinite, has no end. Not a problem.

But if we look at the situation completely differently and don't look at "an amount" of time but look at "time itself" then we clearly understand the way time works is that today is the end of all the days that came before it. To have a today means all the days in the past have ended. If the days that came before today were infinite how did they end at today?
By not having a start.

Until you get these two different concepts straight, "an amount" of time, and "time itself" you won't understand my arguments.

I am pretty sure I understand what you mean by these two things. What I don't understand is why you think that either way of looking at time renders an infinite past illogical, impossible or contradictory.

The closest I can come to it is that you appear to resile from the idea that time didn't have a start. But if the past is infinite, then it cannot have had a start. If you think not having a start is somehow impossible, you need to show this, not just assert it, otherwise the whole thing is an argument from incredulity - Time must have a start because untermensche cannot imagine it not having one.
 
Infinite time is a number of days that never finish. It is an amount of days that never finish. It is an amount of time that never finishes.

No, because 'finish' does imply direction. So for this sentence to be correct, every instance of the word 'finish' needs to be replaced with the phrase 'finish, or start, or both'.

Time only moves in one direction. Moments exist as the present before they are remembered as the past. Moments do not exist as the past before they are remembered as the present.

And you only have two choices. There can be an amount of time that never finishes, in other words it is infinite, or is an amount of time that finishes, it is finite.

Infinite time is an amount of time that never finishes.

It is possible to describe this amount of time as time (meaning time in itself) that never begins, but it is still an amount of time that never finishes.

What is the difference?

The difference is that 'Finish' means 'end', but 'end' can mean EITHER 'finish' OR 'start'; by changing from a directionless term, to one that implies direction, you have changed the meaning.

No. You want to imagine time has no direction.

But if we say time has no beginning time still has to move in the same direction.

So it is an amount of time that never finishes.

But we know that all the past days end at the present day. So the days in the past are not an amount of time that never finishes.
 
If the number of days in the past never have a finish, how did they finish today?

I agree with everything in that post except that last question.

Why is it a problem? The infininty is in the other direction. Back in time.

The alleged infinity is there.

But time still has to move forward even if it allegedly had no start.

So if the forward moving time in the past was infinite, how did it end at the present?
 
No, because 'finish' does imply direction. So for this sentence to be correct, every instance of the word 'finish' needs to be replaced with the phrase 'finish, or start, or both'.

Time only moves in one direction. Moments exist as the present before they are remembered as the past. Moments do not exist as the past before they are remembered as the present.
Who is 'remembering' infinity? God? Remembering is not an attribute of time, it is an attribute of intelligent observers. Not that it matters; I am happy to accept that the past existed; every moment in the past occurred before now. This is true whether or not the past is finite.

And you only have two choices. There can be an amount of time that never finishes
...or never starts, or both...
in other words it is infinite, or is an amount of time that finishes, it is finite.

Infinite time is an amount of time that never finishes.
or never starts. Or both.

It is possible to describe this amount of time as time (meaning time in itself) that never begins,
Good. then it's settled.
but it is still an amount of time that never finishes.
Or never starts. Or both.

What is the difference?

The difference is that 'Finish' means 'end', but 'end' can mean EITHER 'finish' OR 'start'; by changing from a directionless term, to one that implies direction, you have changed the meaning.

No. You want to imagine time has no direction.

But if we say time has no beginning time still has to move in the same direction.
OK, not a drama. Time has no beginning, and has always "moved" towards the future. It has always behaved exactly the same at any point in the infinite past, with an infinite past behind, and an infinite future ahead. Every point in time looks like this, as shown in your earlier graph.

So it is an amount of time that never finishes.
Or never starts. Or both.

But we know that all the past days end at the present day. So the days in the past are not an amount of time that never finishes.
No. They are an amount that never started.

ETA, That is what 'infinite past' means. That time never started.

You seem to be worried that an infinite 'amount' of time couldn't 'fit' between the beginning of time and the present; but if the past has no beginning, that 'problem' is not a problem at all.
 
I agree with everything in that post except that last question.

Why is it a problem? The infininty is in the other direction. Back in time.

The alleged infinity is there.

But time still has to move forward even if it allegedly had no start.

So if the forward moving time in the past was infinite, how did it end at the present?
"The forward moving time" has never been infinite. It is the time spam from now, at any time, to a timepoint in the pas that dont has, and never has had, an upper limit. Time itself is not infinite or finite.

Use a concise vocabulary and all your promblems with infinite time will disappear,
 
The alleged infinity is there.

But time still has to move forward even if it allegedly had no start.

So if the forward moving time in the past was infinite, how did it end at the present?
"The forward moving time" has never been infinite. It is the time spam from now, at any time, to a timepoint in the pas that dont has, and never has had, an upper limit. Time itself is not infinite or finite.

Use a concise vocabulary and all your promblems with infinite time will disappear,

So time in the past is infinite, but forward moving time, which is just the way time works, has never been infinite?

If this makes sense to you please explain it so I can understand.
 
Time only moves in one direction. Moments exist as the present before they are remembered as the past. Moments do not exist as the past before they are remembered as the present.

Who is 'remembering' infinity? God? Remembering is not an attribute of time, it is an attribute of intelligent observers. Not that it matters; I am happy to accept that the past existed; every moment in the past occurred before now. This is true whether or not the past is finite.

The only reason we even talk about the past is because we have memories.

If we had no memory we could only talk about the present and the past would not exist.

And you keep saying the present is here whether the past is infinite or not, but you have never once demonstrated this. You have merely claimed it again and again.

If the past is infinite then infinite time has to pass before we can have a present. But infinite time will never pass so we can never have one.

And you only have two choices. There can be an amount of time that never finishes

...or never starts, or both...

No. It can be TIME ITSELF that never starts. But it is always an AMOUNT OF TIME that never finishes.

To look at an amount of time you can't look at from an end that doesn't finish. You have to look at it beginning at the present.

To say TIME ITSELF never started is to say the AMOUNT OF TIME never finishes.

if you can't ever get these concepts straight this will go nowhere.
 
View attachment 1369
They are the EXACT SAME THING, in terms of the amount of time.
Your drawing shows it all: looking at the past, going forward, as you look at successive past moments nearer and nearer the present time, the amount of time left to pass before the present moment is going down to zero. So, the amount of passed time left to pass now is of course zero.

Amounts don't pass. It's a nonsense to talk of an amount passing. All you can have is the amount of the time that has already passed. The amount of time between 12:00 and 13:00 yesterday is one hour. This amount doesn't pass. It just is and always will be one hour. You are not going to change this amount just sitting here. What passed is time itself, at least according to our common notion of time.

Your drawing shows your confusion on this. The horizontal axis already shows the amounts of time. You don't need a vertical axis to show the amounts. We take it that the length of the horizontal axis starting from any given point and going towards the past is infinite if the axis is infinite in this direction. What's difficult to understand?
EB
 
They are the EXACT SAME THING, in terms of the amount of time.

Your drawing shows it all: looking at the past, going forward, as you look at successive past moments nearer and nearer the present time, the amount of time left to pass before the present moment is going down to zero. So, the amount of passed time left to pass now is of course zero.

The drawing is looking at amounts of time. To look at amounts of time you begin by looking at the present. You can't begin looking at "no beginning". And the amount of time is always a positive value. You can't have an amount of time that is negative.

But actual time, time in itself, has direction.

PAST -----> PAST -----> PAST ------> PAST ------> PRESENT

The prior moments finish at the present moment.

So, if we look at an amount of time in an infinite past our examination begins at the present and moves without finish away from the present. It is an amount of time that never finishes.

But if we look at time itself, all the prior moments finish at the present moment.

So by looking at time itself we can conclude the amount of time, remembering amounts have a positive value, in the past could not have been infinite. If it was, it never could have finished at the present.

Amounts don't pass. It's a nonsense to talk of an amount passing.

If I am talking about an amount I am talking about an amount of time.

And amounts of time pass. An hour passes. A year passes. To pass means to begin and progress and if the amount is finite, finish.
 
Of course and I have said the exact same thing countless times in this thread.

The past as time already passed is of course bounded, at least by today (or now etc). It is bounded by the last unit of time in which we count that has just passed. If we count in days then the past ended yesterday.

If the number of days in the past were infinite then we could not get "through" them to get to today.
Who said we had to go through them. We live now. Nobody is saying we have already lived for an infinitely long time. Again, your English stinks or your post is idiotic.

As to the whatever we need to have always existed to explain we are here at all, you can't legitimately assume that it is somehow something going through time. This thing is or contain time itself. It does go through time just as an infinite road wouldn't need to take a car and drive over itself to get at any point along the road. It's already there.

To have a today means all the prior days have come and gone. An infinite number of prior days doesn't come and go. It goes on forever. There is no finish to an infinite number of days.
The part underlined is so idiotic I don't understand how you can bring yourself to utter such nonsense.

However, as infinite past it still has to have something to do with having no bound somehow.

An infinite past is only bound on one end. A line bound only on one end is of infinite length. It goes on and on.
An infinite past is unbounded towards the past but bounded towards the future by today.

The past does not go on and on. The past over and done with.. This is again your slipshod English. You have absolutely no argument.

Using the word "bound", we can express this idea by saying that an infinite past does not have a bound in the direction of the past.

It is an amount of time that never finishes.
Amounts of time don't pass. Time does.


So, an infinite past is just time that just finished passing and had no bound in the direction of the past.

What is the AMOUNT of time we are talking about when we say time has no start?
What does this sentence mean? We are talking about an infinite past, a past that has no bound towards the past. The amount of time that has already passed is infinite, not because it has no end, which wouldn't mean anything, but because we could not count it. You can say that a count has no end because this is a process. An amount is a figure. It doesn't start or finish. All it does is to have a value or not.


Again you want to obscure the situation by talking about this strange concept of "no start".

I want to clarify the situation by talking about the AMOUNT of time, because when we talk about the amount of time it doesn't matter if we say time didn't start or we say time didn't finish. It is the same amount of time.

If you want to address my argument in any way you have to use the concept of "an amount of time" to do it.
In an infinite past, the amount of time already passed is infinite. Not because the amount goes on and on, which would be idiotic to say, although you say this yourself, but because we could not possibly count it if we tried because counting is a process and we would be counting for an infinite time without ever reaching a last value for the amount of time already counted.
EB
 
If the number of days in the past were infinite then we could not get "through" them to get to today.

Who said we had to go through them. We live now. Nobody is saying we have already lived for an infinitely long time. Again, your English stinks or your post is idiotic.

If the time in the past was one day that would mean one day's worth of time would have to pass before we have today.

If the time in the past was infinite days that means infinite day's worth of time would have to pass before we have today.

I say "we" because we do have today. We are both here at today.

But if infinite days had to pass before we have a today then we could never have it.

An infinite number of prior days doesn't come and go. It goes on forever. There is no finish to an infinite number of days.

The part underlined is so idiotic I don't understand how you can bring yourself to utter such nonsense.

Calling what you don't understand "idiotic" doesn't make it so.

If we say the prior days before today were infinite then that would be an unending number of days.

How do an unending number of days end at today?

Either they are unending or they are not. If the prior days were unending (infinite), then they couldn't have finished at today.

It is an amount of time that never finishes.

Amounts of time don't pass. Time does.

So time passes but if it is an amount of time it doesn't pass?

How does time pass but not an amount of time that has passed?

How does a tree grow but not have an amount of tree growth?

What is the AMOUNT of time we are talking about when we say time has no start?

What does this sentence mean?

If time has no start how much time has passed in the past? Is it a finite amount or is it an amount that increases without finish?
 
Who is 'remembering' infinity? God? Remembering is not an attribute of time, it is an attribute of intelligent observers. Not that it matters; I am happy to accept that the past existed; every moment in the past occurred before now. This is true whether or not the past is finite.

The only reason we even talk about the past is because we have memories.

If we had no memory we could only talk about the present and the past would not exist.

And you keep saying the present is here whether the past is infinite or not, but you have never once demonstrated this. You have merely claimed it again and again.
Look around you. You are not in the past or the future. The present is here.

If the past is infinite then infinite time has to pass before we can have a present.
Yes, that is right.
But infinite time will never pass so we can never have one.
It will, given infinite time. Your statement "infinite time will never pass" implies finite time; It is ONLY true if the past is finite. But you can't assume that - that would be the logical fallacy of assuming your conclusion.

And you only have two choices. There can be an amount of time that never finishes

...or never starts, or both...

No. It can be TIME ITSELF that never starts. But it is always an AMOUNT OF TIME that never finishes.
Yes, we have been through this.

According to YOUR definitions, 'time itself' never starts, and ends in the present; while the 'amount of time' in the past starts at the present, and never finishes. None of this tells us jack about whether or not the past is finite.

To look at an amount of time you can't look at from an end that doesn't finish. You have to look at it beginning at the present.
OK, so we look at it from the present (where it finishes), and we see it stretches infinitely into the past, without end. What is the problem?

To say TIME ITSELF never started is to say the AMOUNT OF TIME never finishes.
Yes, that's right, according to the definitions you have given for these things.

if you can't ever get these concepts straight this will go nowhere.

I am pretty sure that I do have these concepts straight; I am using your definitions throughout, and it seems that all you are saying is that the past can't be infinite, because time without a beginning doesn't provide enough time for infinite time to have elapsed before the present. But if it is infinite, it is always enough. By definition.

You say 'we couldn't have reached the present', but that's silly - wherever we are, where ever we start from, IS by definition, the present at that time. And if the past is infinite, then there is an infinite amount of time before ANY point in time.

I suspect you are thinking that we had to 'get onto' the timeline, and that to do so, we have to have a 'start' where we 'get on'; but that is nonsense. Assuming a finite past, with a well defined start in the past, from where are we coming to 'get on' the timeline? That problem exists for both hypotheses; either an infinite or a finite past doesn't have a 'before' from which we can come to get started. Either way, we can only start with what we observe - we are now on the timeline.

Given that observation, and given that it is incoherent to consider what happened 'before' time, we can then ask 'How does what we observe fit with each hypothesis?'. And the answer is, sadly 'not very well'. Neither possibility - finite time, nor infinite time - includes a mechanism, or even a coherent way to talk about a mechanism, to get the ball rolling; We cannot 'get on to' a timeline, because we cannot do anything in the absence of time - in order for anything to happen, we must already be on the timeline.

So 'being on the timeline' is a given. It must be true - because we observe that time exists; And the fact is that it cannot be used to support either hypothesis - infinite or finite past - because there is nothing about either hypothesis that helps to explain this observation, or that predicts something we do not observe.

If time is finite, then the start of time 'just is'; we have to accept it without the possibility of an explanation.

Equally, if time is infinite, then the present moment 'just is' for any chosen 'present moment'; we have to accept it without the possibility of an explanation.

Unless we can show that one of these things can be explained, there is no way to choose between them; both are possible. You might like one more than the other; Your 'gut feeling' might be that one is preferable; but that isn't enough to declare the other 'illogical', 'impossible' or 'contradictory'. To do that, you need to use sound logic, with premises that rely on unambiguous observations.
 
The only reason we even talk about the past is because we have memories.

If we had no memory we could only talk about the present and the past would not exist.

And you keep saying the present is here whether the past is infinite or not, but you have never once demonstrated this. You have merely claimed it again and again.

Look around you. You are not in the past or the future. The present is here.

So your argument is because we have a present therefore time was infinite in the past?

And your argument demonstrating it is possible for there to be a present, even if the time before it is infinite, is "because we have a present, that proves it"?

You have made no argument showing how it is possible for there to be a present moment even if the time before it is infinite.

Is it possible to count to the end of the negative integers before some point in the future?

How did infinite prior moments finish passing before the present moment?

But infinite time will never pass so we can never have one.

It will, given infinite time. Your statement "infinite time will never pass" implies finite time; It is ONLY true if the past is finite. But you can't assume that - that would be the logical fallacy of assuming your conclusion.

Once again.

Even if I gave you infinite time you would never finish counting the negative integers. There is no end to them, or if we ask about the smallest negative integer, the set doesn't have one, it goes on without finish.

And what I mean by "infinite time will never pass" is that infinite time is like the negative integers. There is no finish. Infinite time is time that goes on and on. It never finishes.

Even if you describe infinite time as time that never begins it is still time that goes on and on. Time only moves in one direction so we know that time in the past has finished at the present. If the past was infinite it couldn't have finished at the present.

No. It can be TIME ITSELF that never starts. But it is always an AMOUNT OF TIME that never finishes.

According to YOUR definitions, 'time itself' never starts, and ends in the present; while the 'amount of time' in the past starts at the present, and never finishes. None of this tells us jack about whether or not the past is finite.

I'm not trying to shove definitions down your throat, but I am trying to define things so my words are clear.

"Time in itself" is just looking at the way time works. We can't say much, but we can say that time is first the present, then it is thought of as the past. Events occur in the present and then as time passes they are thought of as occurring in the past.

"Time in itself" has direction.

And when we look at "time in itself", we know that to have a present means all the prior moments have come and gone. They are finished.

Now when we look at something else, the "amount of time" meant by infinite time in the past (or defining time as having no start), this is an amount of time like the negative integers. It is an amount of time that never finishes.

So when looking at "time in itself" we see that all prior moments end at the present moment, but when we speculate about infinite time in the past it is an amount of moments that never finishes.

Our observations about the way time works, namely all prior moments finish at the present moment, comes into conflict with speculations about infinite time in the past, namely an amount of moments that never finishes.

Our observations show our speculations to be impossible.
 
Look around you. You are not in the past or the future. The present is here.

So your argument is because we have a present therefore time was infinite in the past?
No, my argument is that the existence of the present tells us nothing about whether or not the past is finite.

And your argument demonstrating it is possible for there to be a present, even if the time before it is infinite, is "because we have a present, that proves it"?

You have made no argument showing how it is possible for there to be a present moment even if the time before it is infinite.
I don't need to; You have the burden of proof. You have to show that it is not possible. So far, you have failed to do so.

Is it possible to count to the end of the negative integers before some point in the future?
No. It would require infinite time.

How did infinite prior moments finish passing before the present moment?
By never starting.

But infinite time will never pass so we can never have one.

It will, given infinite time. Your statement "infinite time will never pass" implies finite time; It is ONLY true if the past is finite. But you can't assume that - that would be the logical fallacy of assuming your conclusion.

Once again.

Even if I gave you infinite time you would never finish counting the negative integers.
So you are saying that infinity is less than infinity. That's your argument here. I hope I don't need to explain what is wrong with this assertion.
There is no end to them, or if we ask about the smallest negative integer, the set doesn't have one, it goes on without finish.
Indeed.

And what I mean by "infinite time will never pass" is that infinite time is like the negative integers. There is no finish. Infinite time is time that goes on and on. It never finishes.
Or never starts. Or both. :rolleyesa:

Even if you describe infinite time as time that never begins it is still time that goes on and on.
into the past. Yes.
Time only moves in one direction so we know that time in the past has finished at the present.
Yes, we do. That tells us nothing about what happens in the past though.
If the past was infinite it couldn't have finished at the present.
Unless it had infinite time to do so, in which case it could. :rolleyesa:

No. It can be TIME ITSELF that never starts. But it is always an AMOUNT OF TIME that never finishes.

According to YOUR definitions, 'time itself' never starts, and ends in the present; while the 'amount of time' in the past starts at the present, and never finishes. None of this tells us jack about whether or not the past is finite.

I'm not trying to shove definitions down your throat, but I am trying to define things so my words are clear.
But sadly, you are not doing a good enough job to make them clear to yourself, apparently.

"Time in itself" is just looking at the way time works. We can't say much, but we can say that time is first the present, then it is thought of as the past.
Can we? Did I miss your proof of this? It seems to me to be an unjustified extrapolation of your limited personal observations to encompass the whole of time.
Events occur in the present and then as time passes they are thought of as occurring in the past.

"Time in itself" has direction.

And when we look at "time in itself", we know that to have a present means all the prior moments have come and gone. They are finished.
Yes. They are finished. We already agree on this; the question is whether or not they started, or have always been there.

Now when we look at something else, the "amount of time" meant by infinite time in the past (or defining time as having no start), this is an amount of time like the negative integers. It is an amount of time that never finishes.
You just defined it as having no start and no finish. But we know the past has at least one end, so whatever it is you are discussing here is not the past.

So when looking at "time in itself" we see that all prior moments end at the present moment, but when we speculate about infinite time in the past it is an amount of moments that never finishes.
or never starts.

Our observations about the way time works, namely all prior moments finish at the present moment, comes into conflict with speculations about infinite time in the past, namely an amount of moments that never finishes.
Only when we change definitions mid-argument. Again.

Our observations show our speculations to be impossible.
No, they don't.
 
So your argument is because we have a present therefore time was infinite in the past?

No, my argument is that the existence of the present tells us nothing about whether or not the past is finite.

This is a claim not an argument. How is it possible that infinite prior moments occurred before the present moment?

You have made no argument showing how it is possible for there to be a present moment even if the time before it is infinite.

I don't need to; You have the burden of proof. You have to show that it is not possible. So far, you have failed to do so.

So you can make claims like; "the existence of the present tells us nothing about whether or not the past is finite", and you don't need to support them?

I'm sorry but your claims about what is and isn't possible don't amount to arguments.

Is it possible to count to the end of the negative integers before some point in the future?

No. It would require infinite time.

So if I gave you infinite time you could count to the end of the negative integers?

What would be the final integer?

How did infinite prior moments finish passing before the present moment?

By never starting.

Not starting doesn't mean you finish. Not starting means you go on and on. The amount of time described by time that doesn't start is an amount of time that never finishes.

Even if I gave you infinite time you would never finish counting the negative integers.

So you are saying that infinity is less than infinity. That's your argument here.

Not even close. My argument is that the negative integers never end. So it doesn't matter how much time you have you can't reach the end.

You can't reach the end of something that has no end.

You can't reach the end of infinite prior moments to arrive at a present moment.

"Time in itself" is just looking at the way time works. We can't say much, but we can say that time is first the present, then it is thought of as the past.

Can we? Did I miss your proof of this? It seems to me to be an unjustified extrapolation of your limited personal observations to encompass the whole of time.

So if we don't personally experience time it suddenly works differently?

If your argument is that time in the past was something different than time in the present than obviously time in the present had a start because it is something different from time in the past.

I really don't know what you are trying to claim?

I didn't create the truism that a moment in time is first experienced as a present moment and second it is thought of as a moment in the past. It isn't my claim that time works this way. It can be observed to work this way.

And when we look at "time in itself", we know that to have a present means all the prior moments have come and gone. They are finished.

Yes. They are finished. We already agree on this; the question is whether or not they started, or have always been there.

Great, we agree.

Now we agree that all the prior moments have finished.

Is it possible an amount of moments that never finishes to finish?
 
No, my argument is that the existence of the present tells us nothing about whether or not the past is finite.

This is a claim not an argument. How is it possible that infinite prior moments occurred before the present moment?

You have made no argument showing how it is possible for there to be a present moment even if the time before it is infinite.

I don't need to; You have the burden of proof. You have to show that it is not possible. So far, you have failed to do so.

So you can make claims like; "the existence of the present tells us nothing about whether or not the past is finite", and you don't need to support them?
Yup. You have the burden of showing how the existence of the present supports your claim. Your claim is under examination here. The one about 'an infinite past is logically impossible'. If you think that the existence of the present does tell us something about whether or not the past is finite, it is up to YOU to show how.

I'm sorry but your claims about what is and isn't possible don't amount to arguments.
Nor do yours; and yet you are the one who positively asserts that an infinite past is 'illogical'.

Is it possible to count to the end of the negative integers before some point in the future?

No. It would require infinite time.

So if I gave you infinite time you could count to the end of the negative integers?
No. Because neither time nor integers would end.

What would be the final integer?
There isn't one.

How did infinite prior moments finish passing before the present moment?

By never starting.

Not starting doesn't mean you finish.
and it also doesn't mean you don't.
Not starting means you go on and on.
No, it means you WENT on and on. It says nothing about whether you finish.
The amount of time described by time that doesn't start is an amount of time that never finishes.
No, it is an amount that never starts. Whether it finishes or not isn't specified. :rolleyesa:

Even if I gave you infinite time you would never finish counting the negative integers.

So you are saying that infinity is less than infinity. That's your argument here.

Not even close. My argument is that the negative integers never end. So it doesn't matter how much time you have you can't reach the end.
They end at zero. What you can't reach is the start. OR you can look at it from the opposite direction - then they never end, but they start at zero. Either way, knowing that they are bounded at one end says nothing about them being bound at the other.

You can't reach the end of something that has no end.
No. But you can reach the end of something that has no start.

You can't reach the end of infinite prior moments to arrive at a present moment.
You can, but only if they have no start. Then EVERY moment is the end of infinite prior moments.

"Time in itself" is just looking at the way time works. We can't say much, but we can say that time is first the present, then it is thought of as the past.

Can we? Did I miss your proof of this? It seems to me to be an unjustified extrapolation of your limited personal observations to encompass the whole of time.

So if we don't personally experience time it suddenly works differently?
You don't know how it works at all. You are making an unwarranted assumption that because you remember some of the past, it is theoretically possible to remember it all.

If your argument is that time in the past was something different than time in the present than obviously time in the present had a start because it is something different from time in the past.
That is not my argument. My argument is that you need to present a coherent, valid and sound argument; and have as yet completely failed to do so.

I really don't know what you are trying to claim?
I am trying to claim that YOUR claim that an infinite past is 'illogical' is completely unsupported. All of your arguments in support of it so far have been shown, repeatedly, to be fallacious.

I didn't create the truism that a moment in time is first experienced as a present moment and second it is thought of as a moment in the past. It isn't my claim that time works this way. It can be observed to work this way.
So your contention is that all of the past was observed? By whom?

And when we look at "time in itself", we know that to have a present means all the prior moments have come and gone. They are finished.

Yes. They are finished. We already agree on this; the question is whether or not they started, or have always been there.

Great, we agree.

Now we agree that all the prior moments have finished.
Yes.

Is it possible an amount of moments that never finishes to finish?
No. But it is possible for an 'amount of moments' that never starts to finish, and such an 'amount' would be infinite.

'Start' and 'finish' mean different things; if you define one as a limit, the other automatically must be defined as referring to the opposite limit.

Statements of the form 'X has no finish' do not contain ANY information about whether or not X has a start; to show that something is finite, you need to show that it has BOTH a start, AND a finish. And you need to do this while maintaining consistent definitions for 'start' and 'finish' throughout.
 
You have made no argument showing how it is possible for there to be a present moment even if the time before it is infinite.

I don't need to; You have the burden of proof. You have to show that it is not possible. So far, you have failed to do so.

So let me get this straight.

You rebut my argument with a claim but you don't have to support it at all with any kind of argument?

Your claims to rebut my arguments are true because all burden is on me?

That is quite insane.

If you make a claim to rebut my argument the burden is entirely on you to support it. If you don't, the rebuttal is tossed aside as completely worthless.

I'm sorry but your claims about what is and isn't possible don't amount to arguments.

Nor do yours; and yet you are the one who positively asserts that an infinite past is 'illogical'.

Is it only an assertion to say that things defined as never ending can't end?

Is it only an assertion to say infinite time is time that never ends?

How does time that never ends end at the present moment?

To say it doesn't begin is not an answer. No matter how many times you try to hide behind the smoke screen of "it never ends" it is never an answer. It is always a dodge.

The amount of time described by saying time doesn't begin is an amount of time that never ends.

Not starting means you go on and on.

No, it means you WENT on and on. It says nothing about whether you finish.

So time in the past went on and on.

If this is true how did it end at today?

If it ended today it went on and finished.

I didn't create the truism that a moment in time is first experienced as a present moment and second it is thought of as a moment in the past. It isn't my claim that time works this way. It can be observed to work this way.

So your contention is that all of the past was observed? By whom?

My contention is that the way we see it working today is the way it works. And if we close our eyes it still works the same way. So we don't have to continually observe it to know how it works.

It seems to me that you are claiming time worked differently in the past. Maybe it did, but if it did we wouldn't call that time. It would be something else. Time works the way we observe it working. Things that are not time work differently.

No. But it is possible for an 'amount of moments' that never starts to finish

Tell me how this is possible.

How does something that never starts end?

Please don't tell me to look at an abstraction of the situation drawn in lines. That doesn't demonstrate anything.

Tell me in words, since this is your rebuttal to my argument, how does something that never starts end?

Forget about telling me how something exists without a cause. Forget about telling me how something progresses yet doesn't begin that progression.

Just tell me how something that never starts ends. How does that work?
 
I don't need to; You have the burden of proof. You have to show that it is not possible. So far, you have failed to do so.

So let me get this straight.

You rebut my argument with a claim but you don't have to support it at all with any kind of argument?

Your claims to rebut my arguments are true because all burden is on me?

That is quite insane.

If you make a claim to rebut my argument the burden is entirely on you to support it. If you don't, the rebuttal is tossed aside as completely worthless.

I'm sorry but your claims about what is and isn't possible don't amount to arguments.

Nor do yours; and yet you are the one who positively asserts that an infinite past is 'illogical'.

Is it only an assertion to say that things defined as never ending can't end?
No. But it is an assertion to say that therefore they don't start. :rolleyesa:

Is it only an assertion to say infinite time is time that never ends?
No, it is just an error; or at least, it is an error the first time you do it. When you repeat it despite being told that infinite time can also be time that does not start; or time that neither starts nor ends; without once responding to the correction in any way, then it becomes wilful ignorance.

How does time that never ends end at the present moment?
It doesn't. Time that never starts ends at the present moment.

To say it doesn't begin is not an answer.
Yes, it is. It is the correct answer; unless you can show that it is incorrect - which so far you have notably failed to do without resorting to the equivocation fallacy.
No matter how many times you try to hide behind the smoke screen of "it never ends" it is never an answer. It is always a dodge.
No dodge; just consistent use of the same definition for each word throughout.

The amount of time described by saying time doesn't begin is an amount of time that never ends.
Only if 'begin' means 'end'. You may benefit from the use of a dictionary.

Not starting means you go on and on.

No, it means you WENT on and on. It says nothing about whether you finish.

So time in the past went on and on.
Yup. all the way back; never reaching a beginning. that's what 'infinite past' means.

If this is true how did it end at today?
By ending today. No problem there; what it didn't do was begin.

If it ended today it went on and finished.
Yes. It always has gone on. At every point in the past, the past stretches back infinitely.

I didn't create the truism that a moment in time is first experienced as a present moment and second it is thought of as a moment in the past. It isn't my claim that time works this way. It can be observed to work this way.

So your contention is that all of the past was observed? By whom?

My contention is that the way we see it working today is the way it works. And if we close our eyes it still works the same way. So we don't have to continually observe it to know how it works.

It seems to me that you are claiming time worked differently in the past. Maybe it did, but if it did we wouldn't call that time. It would be something else. Time works the way we observe it working. Things that are not time work differently.
I don't know how it 'works' and nor do you. It is irrelevant to the question at hand, which is "did time start in the past?" (or if we consider it from the other side, if it started today, "does it finish in the past?").

No. But it is possible for an 'amount of moments' that never starts to finish

Tell me how this is possible.
What makes it impossible? 'Start' and 'end' are independent things; The future needs not have an end in order to have a start; why should the past require a start in order to end?

How does something that never starts end?
The same way something that does start ends, presumably.

Please don't tell me to look at an abstraction of the situation drawn in lines. That doesn't demonstrate anything.
Then why did you present it? That's not very rational, presenting a diagram that doesn't demonstrate anything.

Tell me in words, since this is your rebuttal to my argument, how does something that never starts end?
The same way something that does start ends, presumably.

Forget about telling me how something exists without a cause. Forget about telling me how something progresses yet doesn't begin that progression.
OK.

Just tell me how something that never starts ends. How does that work?
Exactly the same way something that does start ends, presumably. I have no reason to imagine that the two things need be related in any way; they are separated by infinite time (or by at the very least a huge but finite amount of time). Why would they be related to each other?

Presumably, time is infinite and unbounded at both ends. We are here (observation); we arbitrarily define an end to the past, and a start to the future, at this point. There is no reason to assume a bound at the extreme past, or the extreme future.

It seems to me that all you are saying is that the past can't be infinite, because time without a beginning doesn't provide enough time for infinite time to have elapsed before the present. But if it is infinite, it is always enough. By definition.

You say 'we couldn't have reached the present', but that's silly - wherever we are, where ever we start from, IS by definition, the present at that time. And if the past is infinite, then there is an infinite amount of time before ANY point in time.

I suspect you are thinking that we had to 'get onto' the timeline, and that to do so, we have to have a 'start' where we 'get on'; but that would be nonsense. Assuming a finite past, with a well defined start in the past, from where are we coming to 'get on' the timeline? That problem exists for both hypotheses; either an infinite or a finite past doesn't have a 'before' from which we can come to get started. Either way, we can only start with what we observe - we are now on the timeline.

Given that observation, and given that it is incoherent to consider what happened 'before' time, we can then ask 'How does what we observe fit with each hypothesis?'. And the answer is, sadly, 'not very well'. Neither possibility - finite time, nor infinite time - includes a mechanism, or even a coherent way to talk about a mechanism, to get the ball rolling; We cannot 'get on to' a timeline, because we cannot do anything in the absence of time - in order for anything to happen, we must already be on the timeline.

So 'being on the timeline' is a given. It must be true - because we observe that time exists; And the fact is that it cannot be used to support either hypothesis - infinite or finite past - because there is nothing about either hypothesis that helps to explain this observation, or that predicts something we do not observe.

If time is finite, then the start of time 'just is'; we have to accept it without the possibility of an explanation.

Equally, if time is infinite, then the present moment 'just is' for any chosen 'present moment'; we have to accept it without the possibility of an explanation.

Unless we can show that one of these things can be explained, there is no way to choose between them; both are possible. You might like one more than the other; Your 'gut feeling' might be that one is preferable; but that isn't enough to declare the other 'illogical', 'impossible' or 'contradictory'. To do that, you need to use sound logic, with premises that rely on unambiguous observations.
 
I agree with everything in that post except that last question.

Why is it a problem? The infininty is in the other direction. Back in time.

The alleged infinity is there.

But time still has to move forward even if it allegedly had no start.

So if the forward moving time in the past was infinite, how did it end at the present?

Again: "the forward moving time in the past" is a concept, it doesnt have any size. You must clearly define what value you refer to.
 
Back
Top Bottom