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Infinte Regress Timeline...

It doesn't. That's what an 'infinite past' means. :rolleyesa:

If it doesn't finish then how did it finish at the present?
According to this guy, it didn't:
No.

You can't have an amount that never starts. The amount of time in the past begins with one day in the past then two days in the past and so on.

The amount of time in the past has a start at the present. What it doesn't have is a finish, if it is infinite.

The number of days in the past finished today.

Or started today, depending on your point of view.

The problem here is that you want to take both points of view at once. That is the fallacy of equivocation.

The word 'start' can mean the time closest to the present; or the time furthest from the present. Whichever you choose, the word 'finish' means the opposite. But you can't change mid-stream.

Pick one; and stick to it.
 
If it doesn't finish then how did it finish at the present?

According to this guy, it didn't:

I said it couldn't.

If the days in the past were infinite they could not have finished at today.

The number of days in the past finished today.

Or started today, depending on your point of view.

Our point of view is we are here today.

So the number of days in the past had to have finished.

But if they were infinite they could not have finished.
 
According to this guy, it didn't:

I said it couldn't.

If the days in the past were infinite they could not have finished at today.

The number of days in the past finished today.

Or started today, depending on your point of view.

Our point of view is we are here today.

So the number of days in the past had to have finished.

But if they were infinite they could not have finished.

Sure they could. It would require infinite time, but then that's a given in the circumstances.
 
But if they were infinite they could not have finished.
Why not?

When does an infinite number of days finish in the future?

If there is no end, how is there is an end to infinite days in the past, namely at today?

- - - Updated - - -

Sure they could. It would require infinite time, but then that's a given in the circumstances.

You won't count to the end of the negative integers.

Even if I gave you infinite time to do it.
 
Right so far. You can define something into existence, such as the beginning of time, and just because you defined something as existing, it doesn't mean that it does.
The idea of time starting at the Big Bang is something I've heard physicists say many times.

I didn't define the idea into existence. Physicists told me about it.
Maybe by an elementary school physics teacher. Not saying that they are not excellent at physics, but in high school and elementary school, some facts are.. a bit adjusted for the mindset and ability to comprehend of the individuals being taught.

Newtonian before Einsteinian physics, ya know?

Anyway, a large amount of modern (non-creationist) cosmological thought has evolved past the point of a geocentric universe in addition to evolving past the thought of a "start" at the BB. So, I'm not sure if you're going to find an actual physicist anywhere in the world who says "nothing was happening before the BB".

To have a present means the past is over, it is finished.
Nope. The present is part of the past and the future- part of a continuum. To be part of a string does not mean that the string ends at you, if you are not the end of the string.

Again, when you talk about the AMOUNT of time you are always talking about something positive. This gets rid of all the troubles of trying to start counts from pasts that don't begin.
So -10 minutes from now is a point in the past, it's magnitude is positive (10), but it is measured from now backwards, so its direction is negative. Measurements into the past are from NOW, and are measured in finite units from now in the negative (pastwards) direction.

The AMOUNT of time represented by saying time doesn't begin is the same as saying time doesn't finish.
Ok, single magnitude. You threw something true in to throw people off, ehh?

Remember, indeterminate form implies that -infinity + infinity = anything. The philosophical roots of this are pretty simple- something that has no defined boundary (infinity and/or negative infinity) being added to its "opposite" has no defined central location (or zero point), because the boundaries on the opposite sides do not actual exist: there are no boundaries.

This supports my argument and it makes perfect sense to me. That is why I said over and over that picking a point on a line that is infinite in both direction is an arbitrary process.

This is why I say over and over you can't have a present moment if the prior moments are infinite.
No- indeterminate form implies that every present moment is part of eternity (which is the infinite past + the infinite future, zero point of now).

That is actually a pretty cool explanation of it- that every now is represented by the indeterminate form of the past + future = all presents (although babies sometimes like the wrapping paper more than the gift itself).
 
When does an infinite number of days finish in the future?

It begins today.

If there is no end, how is there is an end to infinite days in the past, namely at today?

But there is an end.

There was no beginning to an infinite past. However, there is an end to an infinite past, namely today. Problem solved.

That was easy.

You continue to assert that an infinite past is impossible because we can't traverse what's already been traversed. The past is finished, done, over, ended...however you want to put it. We are at the present. This is true whether the past is finite or infinite. If time had no beginning, it would still have a present and an infinite past that terminates at the present but that has no beginning, and we would, of course, find ourselves at the present looking back at the past and forward at the future.

It really is that simple.
 
The idea of time starting at the Big Bang is something I've heard physicists say many times.

I didn't define the idea into existence. Physicists told me about it.
Maybe by an elementary school physics teacher. Not saying that they are not excellent at physics, but in high school and elementary school, some facts are.. a bit adjusted for the mindset and ability to comprehend of the individuals being taught.

Newtonian before Einsteinian physics, ya know?

Anyway, a large amount of modern (non-creationist) cosmological thought has evolved past the point of a geocentric universe in addition to evolving past the thought of a "start" at the BB. So, I'm not sure if you're going to find an actual physicist anywhere in the world who says "nothing was happening before the BB".

Just show me evidence of any kind of an event that occurred before the Big Bang to demonstrate time existed before it.

In the complete absence of evidence we don't assume things exist. We assume they don't.

And the physicists who I refer to when I refer to physicists claiming time started at the Big Bang are Stephen Hawking and Lawrence Krauss.

I have read Hawking say it and heard Krauss say it. Some may claim they are not saying the Big Bang is the ultimate beginning of time. It is only the beginning of time for this universe.

But until we have evidence of time before this universe we can't assume it exists. We have to be very skeptical of things claimed to exist yet have no evidence to support their existence.

We can say for certain the Big Bang is A beginning to time. It may be the only beginning or it may be one of many.

But there can't be infinite beginnings in an infinite past because people have described it as a thing with NO beginning, not infinite beginnings. Whatever "no beginning" is supposed to mean.

To have a present means the past is over, it is finished.

Nope. The present is part of the past and the future- part of a continuum. To be part of a string does not mean that the string ends at you, if you are not the end of the string.

To have a present moment means all the moments before it have come and gone. All the prior moments have finished.

This is inescapable. There is no other way to have a present moment unless all the prior moments have finished.

Saying we are part of some infinite string that extends to the past doesn't change anything. We are not in the past. We are in the present. That means the past has finished.

The only way to be in the present is if the prior moments have finished.

Again, when you talk about the AMOUNT of time you are always talking about something positive. This gets rid of all the troubles of trying to start counts from pasts that don't begin.

So -10 minutes from now is a point in the past, it's magnitude is positive (10), but it is measured from now backwards, so its direction is negative. Measurements into the past are from NOW, and are measured in finite units from now in the negative (pastwards) direction.

The amount of time that has passed in the last 10 minutes is 10 minutes. Not negative 10 minutes.

The amount of time in the past is always positive.

So if we talk about an infinite amount of time in the past we are talking about the same amount of time as infinite time in the future. Their amounts are both positive and neither is an amount that finishes.

No- indeterminate form implies that every present moment is part of eternity (which is the infinite past + the infinite future, zero point of now).

If a present moment is said to occur after infinite prior moments occur first, then it can never occur.

If time never started that means it consists of infinite prior moments.

Infinite prior moments can't finish occurring at any present moment.

To say the past is infinite is to say there is no such thing as the present, because if the past was infinite we would only have a past that never finishes and would never have a present.
 
When does an infinite number of days finish in the future?

It begins today.

Great. If only I had asked that. When does it finish?

If there is no end, how is there is an end to infinite days in the past, namely at today?

But there is an end.

An end to infinite days?

Even though infinite days is a number of days that never finishes?

There was no beginning to an infinite past. However, there is an end to an infinite past, namely today. Problem solved.

Nothing even close to solved.

You are claiming an infinite number of days ended today.

Even though an infinite number of days will never finish?

You will never finish counting the negative integers. No matter how much time I give you.

If the days in the past are represented by the negative integers then an infinite past is a string of integers that never finishes.

It can't have finished at any present moment. It never finishes.
 
It begins today.

Great. If only I had asked that. When does it finish?

If there is no end, how is there is an end to infinite days in the past, namely at today?

But there is an end.

An end to infinite days?

Even though infinite days is a number of days that never finishes?

Or that never began, but end at today.

You are claiming an infinite number of days ended today.

Yes, and it's infinite because it had no beginning.

Even though an infinite number of days will never finish?

That's your assertion, not mine. And it's wrong regarding an infinite past, as an infinite past has no beginning but ends today.

You will never finish counting the negative integers. No matter how much time I give you.

So? An infinite past, unbounded in the past /= counting the negative integers in a finite amount of time, as your assertion implies. We went over this before. The fact that I can't finish counting the negative integers given a finite amount of time says nothing about the notion of infinite time with no beginning in the past, but with a present moment.

If the days in the past are represented by the negative integers then an infinite past is a string of integers that never finishes.

Sure, beginning at today and counting backwards that is true, because there is no beginning to an infinite past so one never reaches the beginning. However, there is an end to an infinite past, namely today, from where one would start counting backwards.

It can't have finished at any present moment.

On the contrary, infinite time has no beginning in the past, but has a present moment. The past has already been traversed, whether finite or infinite. You continue to assert that an infinite past is impossible because we can't traverse what's already been traversed. That's just wrong.

It never finishes.

Given an infinite past, here was no beginning to time. Yet there is a present moment, because it is time. This is true whether time in the past is finite or infinite.

You continue to assert that an infinite past is impossible because we can't traverse what's already been traversed. The past is finished, done, over, ended...however you want to put it. We are at the present. This is true whether the past is finite or infinite. If time had no beginning, it would still have a present, and would have an infinite past that terminates at the present but that has no beginning, and we would, of course, find ourselves at the present looking back at the past and forward at the future. Because it is time we're talking about, and time has a present, and a past that's been traversed whether finite or infinite, and a future beginning now.

It really is that simple.
 
Even though an infinite number of days will never finish?

That's your assertion, not mine. And it's wrong regarding an infinite past, as an infinite past has no beginning but ends today.

It's not my assertion. It is the definition of an infinite number of days. An infinite number of days is an amount of days that never finishes. Even if it is an infinite number of days in the past.

When the number of days in the future is infinite this is easily understood, but when when it is an infinite number of days in the past how come it isn't?

An infinite number of days in the past is the same number of days as an infinite number of days in the future.

A number of days that increases without finish.

A number of days that increases without finish can't have finished at today.

You will never finish counting the negative integers. No matter how much time I give you.

So? An infinite past, unbounded in the past /= counting the negative integers in a finite amount of time, as your assertion implies. We went over this before. The fact that I can't finish counting the negative integers given a finite amount of time says nothing about the notion of infinite time with no beginning in the past, but with a present moment.

Yes it does.

If every day in the past is assigned a negative integer then there is no end to the number of days in the past.

They can't have ended at the present day.
 
Just show me evidence of any kind of an event that occurred before the Big Bang to demonstrate time existed before it.
Ohh, that's relatively simple, you can infer it from the actions of the universe. Something had to be occurring or the BB would not have. A firework does not go off, despite existing with potential energy, without some form of kinetic energy to trigger it.

In fact, modern western and ancient eastern cosmology both include ideas about cyclical universes being born, dying, and reborn out of the "ashes" of the old for all eternity. Stephen Hawking's model that you cited as evidence against eternal time (although it specifically implies eternal time, the misinterpretation is strong with you young Jedi) specifically mentions timelines being born out of other timelines, and perhaps collapsing back into the other timeline at the end of one timeline, only to shortly thereafter start another timeline.

In the complete absence of evidence we don't assume things exist. We assume they don't.
Yes. There is no evidence that there was not something before the BB. In fact, what we can infer from causality is that there was definitely something before the BB. All evidence points towards eternal existence of something.

And the physicists who I refer to when I refer to physicists claiming time started at the Big Bang are Stephen Hawking and Lawrence Krauss. I have read Hawking say it and heard Krauss say it.
Yeah. The thing is with the Hawking quote was taken out of context- he did not actually mean what you claim he means. You disregarded everything else he said, and misinterpreted what he said completely. In this light, I would be very obtuse to believe you will be able or willing to interpret what I or anyone else say correctly.

In fact, it has also been pointed out that although Krauss tried to arrive at something from nothing, he admits in the preface of his book that there must be some sort of framework that exists (and thus some sort of causal impetus) that causes things to appear out of "nothing", in other words his causal framework and impetus are not nothing.

But until we have evidence of time before this universe we can't assume it exists. We have to be very skeptical of things claimed to exist yet have no evidence to support their existence.
Everything we see in reality points towards something always preceding something else. So, from this we can infer eternal precession. Since we have absolutely no evidence that something did not precede the BB, it's up to those claiming no precession to provide evidence.

But there can't be infinite beginnings in an infinite past because people have described it as a thing with NO beginning, not infinite beginnings. Whatever "no beginning" is supposed to mean.
Something that always exists has no beginning to its existence. Something that begins to exist within something that always exists does. There can be infinite beginnings in eternal time, or simply enough.
Nope. The present is part of the past and the future- part of a continuum. To be part of a string does not mean that the string ends at you, if you are not the end of the string.

To have a present moment means all the moments before it have come and gone. All the prior moments have finished.

This is inescapable. There is no other way to have a present moment unless all the prior moments have finished.
Well, the present gas eternal duration, has existed forever, and will. So, you really don't get to say the present has stopped, or began. It just is always. You don't arrive at it- it exists in the past and future as well as now.
So -10 minutes from now is a point in the past, it's magnitude is positive (10), but it is measured from now backwards, so its direction is negative. Measurements into the past are from NOW, and are measured in finite units from now in the negative (pastwards) direction.

The amount of time that has passed in the last 10 minutes is 10 minutes. Not negative 10 minutes.
Ok, do you know what magnitude is? Magnitude is the absolute measure. From now to a point 10 minutes ago (-10 minutes from now) has a magnitude of 10 minutes. So does the measurement from now to 10 minutes in the future (they both have a magnitude of 10 minutes). However, the measurement from now to the past is -10 minutes, because it is in the negative direction, and from now to the future is +10 minutes because it is in the positive direction (we can switch which one we define as positive or negative- they simply have to be the opposite sign because they are opposite directions).

The amount of time in the past is always positive.
Sure, unless you are measuring from now. It's always has a magnitude of +infinity. However, measuring backwards we generally interpret as measuring in the negative direction, and measuring forwards positive. We aren't required to do so- we can say that ten minutes into the future is -10 minutes, and 10 minutes into the past is +10 minutes. We differentiate between the direction of measurement by assigning positive and negative to the magnitude measured.
 
Just show me evidence of any kind of an event that occurred before the Big Bang to demonstrate time existed before it.

Ohh, that's relatively simple, you can infer it from the actions of the universe. Something had to be occurring or the BB would not have. A firework does not go off, despite existing with potential energy, without some form of kinetic energy to trigger it.

Empty speculation is not evidence. Maybe the only thing that has ever occurred is the Big Bang. And how it occurred will forever be a mystery.

We have no evidence of events before the Big Bang. We can't simply assume they are there.
In the complete absence of evidence we don't assume things exist. We assume they don't.

Yes. There is no evidence that there was not something before the BB.

No evidence of not something? I suspect this is not surprising.

In fact, what we can infer from causality is that there was definitely something before the BB.

Infer from causality? So you know what caused the Big Bang? You know it had a cause at all? Tell me about it.

In fact, it has also been pointed out that although Krauss tried to arrive at something from nothing, he admits in the preface of his book that there must be some sort of framework that exists (and thus some sort of causal impetus) that causes things to appear out of "nothing", in other words his causal framework and impetus are not nothing.

He says that empty space can cause a universe to spontaneously come into existence.

To spontaneously come into existence from empty space is not coming into existence due to an external cause. It is coming into existence due to an internal state.

But until we have evidence of time before this universe we can't assume it exists. We have to be very skeptical of things claimed to exist yet have no evidence to support their existence.

Everything we see in reality points towards something always preceding something else. So, from this we can infer eternal precession. Since we have absolutely no evidence that something did not precede the BB, it's up to those claiming no precession to provide evidence.

You claim time has nothing preceding it. It has no beginning. No cause.

You contradict yourself when you claim arguments about causation support your position.

To have a present moment means all the moments before it have come and gone. All the prior moments have finished.

This is inescapable. There is no other way to have a present moment unless all the prior moments have finished.

Well, the present gas eternal duration, has existed forever, and will.

This line of spookery has been shown to be erroneous.

A present moment is a unique configuration of all that exists. When the configuration changes you have the next moment, and so on.

Every moment is transitory, none are eternal.
 
According to this guy, it didn't:

I said it couldn't.

If the days in the past were infinite they could not have finished at today.

According to your own words, they didn't need to 'finish at today'.

You very clearly stated that: "The amount of time in the past has a start at the present. What it doesn't have is a finish" Nothing about 'could' or 'couldn't'. The reason time in the past, as described by this sentence of yours, has no 'finish' is that you have defined the 'start' as being at the present; 'finish' means the opposite end of a line from its 'start', so any 'finish' is therefore necessarily in the distant past, if it exists at all.

You can define the 'start' any way you like; but having defined it, you cannot change the meaning elsewhere in your argument. That is the fallacy of equivocation.

Our point of view is we are here today.
Yes.

So the number of days in the past had to have finished.
No. You defined the past as STARTING at the present, so we can't say anything for sure about the 'finish' which, if it exists at all must be in the distant past.

But if they were infinite they could not have finished.
Indeed. There cannot be a 'finish' in the distant past - the past would be infinite. This is a restatement of the position you are seeking to rebut, not a rebuttal.
 
I said it couldn't.

If the days in the past were infinite they could not have finished at today.

According to your own words, they didn't need to 'finish at today'.

You very clearly stated that: "The amount of time in the past has a start at the present. What it doesn't have is a finish"

All the prior days end at today. Yesterday is the most recent day in the past. It ended today.

The amount of time in the past begins at today. The amount of time in the past is yesterday plus the day before yesterday plus the day before that, and so on.

These are two separate concepts.

Our point of view is we are here today.


So the number of days in the past had to have finished.

No. You defined the past as STARTING at the present, so we can't say anything for sure about the 'finish' which, if it exists at all must be in the distant past.

The infinite past supposedly has no beginning.

To look at the amount of time in this infinite past we can begin at the present and start counting the amount.

There is no difference between saying the past has no start and saying we will look at the amount of that time in the past and it is an amount that increases without finish.
 
According to your own words, they didn't need to 'finish at today'.

You very clearly stated that: "The amount of time in the past has a start at the present. What it doesn't have is a finish"

All the prior days end at today. Yesterday is the most recent day in the past. It ended today.
OK. And if they never started, the past is infinite.

The amount of time in the past begins at today. The amount of time in the past is yesterday plus the day before yesterday plus the day before that, and so on.
OK, and if that 'amount of time' never finishes, then the past is infinite.

These are two separate concepts.
Then be very careful not to mix them up.

Our point of view is we are here today.


So the number of days in the past had to have finished.

No. You defined the past as STARTING at the present, so we can't say anything for sure about the 'finish' which, if it exists at all must be in the distant past.

The infinite past supposedly has no beginning.
Correct.

To look at the amount of time in this infinite past we can begin at the present and start counting the amount.
OK; and if the past is infinite, we will never finish.

There is no difference between saying the past has no start and saying we will look at the amount of that time in the past and it is an amount that increases without finish.

That is correct.

I see absolutely nothing here that suggests that an infinite past is impossible, illogical, or contradictory.
 
These are two separate concepts.

Then be very careful not to mix them up.

I don't. But I continually have to point it out when I am talking about an amount of time.

There is no difference between saying the past has no start and saying we will look at the amount of that time in the past and it is an amount that increases without finish.

I see absolutely nothing here that suggests that an infinite past is impossible, illogical, or contradictory.

If the amount of time in the past increases without finish then it represents a number of days that will never finish.

If the number of days in the past never have a finish, how did they finish today?
 
Then be very careful not to mix them up.

I don't. But I continually have to point it out when I am talking about an amount of time.

There is no difference between saying the past has no start and saying we will look at the amount of that time in the past and it is an amount that increases without finish.

I see absolutely nothing here that suggests that an infinite past is impossible, illogical, or contradictory.

If the amount of time in the past increases without finish then it represents a number of days that will never finish.
See, there you go again mixing them up! By number, do you mean 'amount'?

If so, then you are right, but talking about an amount of time that (by your definition) STARTS at the present.

If not, then you are wrong, because (by your definition) the past FINISHES at the present.

If the number of days in the past never have a finish, how did they finish today?

If by 'number' you mean 'amount', then they didn't - by your definition, they started today, and never finish.

If by 'number' you do NOT mean amount, then they do have a finish today; they never have a start. So the question is nonsensical.
 
If the amount of time in the past increases without finish then it represents a number of days that will never finish.

See, there you go again mixing them up! By number, do you mean 'amount'?

You do know it is possible to use different words to describe the same thing?

Infinite time is a number of days without end. It is an amount of days without end. It is an amount of time without end.

Infinite time is a number of days that never finish. It is an amount of days that never finish. It is an amount of time that never finishes.

What is the difference?

If the number of days in the past never have a finish, how did they finish today?

If by 'number' you mean 'amount', then they didn't - by your definition, they started today, and never finish.

You confuse completely different concepts.

I only use the concept of "an amount" of time to try to understand what is meant by time with "no start".

So you have to begin looking at the amount of time at the present because you can't begin looking at an amount from "no start".

But if we look at the situation completely differently and don't look at "an amount" of time but look at "time itself" then we clearly understand the way time works is that today is the end of all the days that came before it. To have a today means all the days in the past have ended. If the days that came before today were infinite how did they end at today?

Until you get these two different concepts straight, "an amount" of time, and "time itself" you won't understand my arguments.
 
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