For reasons evident below, I wanted to pursue the word "man"; but that started me down a rabbit-hole.
PIE *dʰéǵʰōm means "earth" and leads to *ǵʰmṓ ("earthling", "human"). From that is derived Latin /homo/ and proto-Germanic *gumô, and English "human".
When the initial 'g' or 'h' is omitted we get the simpler PIE word *mon meaning "man." This produces *mann- in proto-Germanic and so on.
But when PIE made its transition to Satem-IE, for some reason *mon became *mongʷyós > *mangjás in proto-Balto-Slavic and *monusíyos > *manušíyas in proto-Indo-Iranian. Sanskrit forms include: मनु (mánu), मनुस् (mánus), मनुष्य (manuṣyà). (Armenian "human" is մարդ /mɑɾtʰ/ from PIE *mr̥tós which may be cognate to "mortal.")
Manu_(Hinduism) tells me that Manu refers to the archetypal man (the first man) and that manuṣyà means the "children of Manu."
But let me get to the point, if any. Many expats here in the Kingdom are rather conversant in Thai, but I impress the autochthones by reading Thai. HOWEVER, as I always point out, while I can read Thai I certainly cannot WRITE it! There are SIX aspirated T's in the alphabet, not to mention 2 unaspirated T's -- who could remember which one to use for a given word? (And as shown below S becomes T in at least one word.) There are dozens of hard-to-distinguish vowel combinations; and a non-trivial mapping from tone marks to tones. (Since neither my auditory brain nor my vocal brain copes well with tones anyway, there was little point in memorizing this mapping.)
For example, until today I would never have guessed that
มนุษย์ is the spelling of /má-nút/ "human." If we transliterate that word letter-by-letter we get MNUSY (Wiktionary:
m n u ʂ y ʻ) The mark over the Y is a "silencing mark." Once the Y is silenced, the S must be silenced also -- or rather converted to a T! -- since no word ends with an S sound. (The final S is dropped
even when it's part of an English word or name.)
The weird spelling (MNUSY) of
มนุษย์ /má-nút/ "human" makes sense when we see that it is borrowed from मनुष्य (manuṣyà). The Sanskrit word is also borrowed into other Austric languages (Khmer, Indonesian, etc.) as well as Burmese.
Would this word be considered a "Wanderwort" or just witness to India's military domination of SE Asia for many centuries? In the latter case, I suppose this was before the conquests of the
Chola dynasty since IIUC that dynasty spoke Tamil rather than Sanskrit. Or was Sanskrit already a liturgical language from which Buddhists and Hindus were eager to borrow?