beero1000
Veteran Member
I'll use row rank here.
The first two rows of that matrix can be used to calculate the third one: - (first) + 2*(second). One can make a rank-1 matrix from each of those first two rows, thus giving two rank-1 matrices.
{{1, 1, 0}}
{{1, 3, 4}}
with
{{1, 5, 8}} = 2*{{1, 3, 4}} - {{1, 1, 0}}
More generally, any row of any matrix can form a rank-1 matrix. It's {row}.
Yup. The SVD gives the best possible such decomposition i.e. if the sum of rank 1 matrices is truncated, the resulting approximation is closest (among all such sums) to the original matrix.
In general, if a matrix A has an eigenvalue λ, then F(A) has a corresponding eigenvalue, f(λ).If a 3 x 3 matrix A has eigenvalues 0, 1, and 2, what are the eigenvalues of (A2+I)-1?
Thus, 0, 1, 2 correspond to 1, 1/2, 1/5.
Eight:How many different Jordan forms represent the class of 2 x 2 binary matrices?
\( \left( \begin{array}{cc} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \\ \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 \\ \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \\ \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{cc} \frac{1}{2} \left(1-\sqrt{5}\right) & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{1}{2} \left(1+\sqrt{5}\right) \\ \end{array} \right) \)
Found with Mathematica:
Code:TeXForm /@ Union[JordanDecomposition[Partition[#, 2]][[2]] & /@ Tuples[{0, 1}, 4]]
A nice way to see that without explicitly computing the representatives is: The trace is 0, 1, or 2 and for each trace value, the determinant has two possible values, so there are 6 possible characteristic polynomials. Two of these also represent classes of non-diagonalizable matrices (corresponding to eigenvalue pairs (0,0) and (1,1)). Therefore, there are 8 different families.
You have to flatten M. Transposing is then interchanging the components of this M vector in a suitable way.Transposition of n x n matrices is a linear mapping. If every (finite-dimensional) linear mapping has a matrix representation, why can't we say that there is a matrix A such that AM = MT for every M? What is the correct statement?
A.M = MT gives A = MT.M-1, and A can be shown to depend on the specific values in M. This is easy to show for a 2*2 matrix.
Another way to see that is that matrix representation would be n2 by n2, the dimension of the space of n x n matrices. The sizes don't match. Flattening M is equivalent to finding a coordinate vector for M with respect to some basis of the space of matrices, so the vector will have n2 components. and everything works out.