beero1000
Veteran Member
That works too. My route was more complicated.
I arrived at it by doing the Taylor series for \((x^n-b)^{(1/n)}\) with b= x^n. When you do that you end up with:
x - x*first term + x*second term - x*third term.... dividing through by x you get:
1 - first term + second term - third term +....
and since the Taylor series adds up to 0 (for x^n-x^n), and the first term is 1, the rest of the terms = -1. So I flopped the signs on the rest, and got 1.
If you want to make arriving at 1 complicated, use my route.
It happens.
Here's one: Let Fn denote the n-th Fibonacci number (i.e. F1 = F2 = 1 and Fn = Fn-1 + Fn-2) and find \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{F_n}{2^n}\). In general, what is \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{F_n}{k^n}\)?
Bonus points for determining convergence. Extra bonus points for not using the Binet formula.