Do you have any empirical evidence to support your claim?
Your assumption of a completely pass through to inflation is unreasonable for a number of reasons. Here are just 2 of them.
First, since labor is not the entire cost of production, there is no reason to think that the cost of production would go up by x%. Using GDP data (which excludes intermediate product production), labor compensation bounces around 60% of GDP and minimum wage workers are 1% of workers, which suggests prices rise 0.6% of x%. Gross output (which includes the production of intermediate goods), is output double GDP, which suggests 0.3% of x%. Even if every worker in the US gets the same x% raise (a very dubious behavioral result), that gives a range of 30% to 60% of x%.
As an aside, please don't trot out your Marxist dogma that all production costs are either labor or taxes. Capital has an opportunity cost of non-use which does not depend on labor.