Why should biology trump the courts holding everyone to the same legal standards?  Does the fact that women can get pregnant diminish or remove their ability to know the difference between right & wrong?  If they're not able to know the difference between right & wrong, how can they be trusted with the responsibilities of adulthood; are they exempt, because vagina?
		
		
	 
It depends on who constructed the legal standards doesn't it.  If one doesn't take into account differences in consequences how can the law demonstrate the same legal standards?  My point is made you refuse to accept it.  That's for you to wrestle with.  BTW its not vagina its uterus and birth canal.  Get your facts straight before you make what I think are ridiculous claims.  My claims are explicit and accurate.  Your claims waves the hand and calls male reproductive system and female reproductive system the same.  When you bring forth a man who has carried a fetus and has given birth then you can claim equal.
		
 
		
	 
Really?  Why does it depend on who constructed the legal standards?    If a man makes a law that says: "You are not allowed to use force or coercion to get sex from another person, who doesn't want to give you sex"; is it any less valid than if a woman makes the same law, word for word?  Why should the sex of the person writing the law make the law any different in it's meaning or application?
I'm well aware of the need for a uterus, ovum, & vagina for pregnancy & birthing.  "Because vagina" is a jab at the inherent sexism of your position.  Since you're nit picking, isn't the vagina one end of the birth canal, specifically the opening from which the newborn departs the woman's body during a natural birth?  My position is actually quite simple, no one should commit rape, and anyone who is proven, beyond a reasonable doubt, to have done so should be held to the same legal standard as anyone else who is proven to have committed the same crime.  
Unless I'm mistaken, you're saying that only women who are forced to have sex against their will can be rape victims, while men who are forced to have sex against their will are not.  What legal recourse are men who are forced into unwanted sex allowed to have?
The woman doesn't end up pregnant, by this particular man, if she'd simply respected the fact that he didn't want to have sex with her.  Your position seems to be punish the victim, because he wasn't born into the "correct" sex.
Why is she entitled to his DNA, if he doesn't want to engage in the act that transfers it from him to her?  If she makes the man give this DNA when he didn't want to have sex with her, or give his DNA to her by other means, why should he be obligated to give her a cut of the fruits of his labor for 18+ years?  18+ years is a hell of a lot longer than 9 months.