doubtingt
Senior Member
So if a female has a glass of wine she can have consensual (even affirmatively consensual) sex and it miraculously mutates into non-consensual sex if she decides to press charges for whatever reason
No, it doesn't; what makes you think such a crazy thing? Nobody has said anything remotely like this. You made it up and it's stupid.
Damn, our nice agreeable exchange in the religious politics thread is about to be offset.
Your own arguments and the contents of the law make him think that. The law defines any act where the women is "intoxicated" as rape, no matter how otherwise affirmative the consent seemed at the time. The law fails to specify or require a level of "intoxication", thus any level above .00 bac would qualify, and a single glass of wine is more than enough to register .02-.08 for most women, and even make them DWI under the harsher forms of existing DWI laws.
You claimed that "If she had something to drink and had no objections then it is functionally not-rape ". This contradicts the law which says that it is a criminal act of rape no matter her seeming consent. If she decides at any point (even years later) to accuse him of rape, her intoxication automatically makes it a case of rape, so what you called "functionally not-rape", you (and the law) would also need to call "rape" the moment she chooses to make the accusation.
Your comments illustrate why such a law is so problematic. You want to define the exact same act as a crime or not a crime, solely based upon whether it is reported as a crime. An act is either a crime or not, and whether it is reported has no bearing on that fact. But since you realize that the actual law would make so many consensual acts criminal rape in principle, even if not reported, you want to skirt this fact by pretending that the act only becomes a crime after its reported, but that is not how the law or any sensible theory of it works.
As weird as it sounds to type it, Derec is correct.