ryan
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Beero1000, would the answer to the OP be x, where x is an element of [-infinity, infinity]?
I tried to solve this with my solar calculator. I couldn't get an answer, though, on account of the sun being finite.Just to mess with you even more
Start with an empty vase at 11:00am, at 11:30am add a (countable) infinity of balls to the vase and remove 1 ball. At 11:45am, add another countable infinity of balls to the vase and remove 1 ball. Continue the process, halving the time step each iteration. How many balls are in the vase at noon?
My answer - still 42!
I make it either zero or one, depending on our metaphysical prejudices. Consider...Start with an empty vase at 11:00am. At 11:30am, place 10 balls in the vase, and remove one ball. At 11:45am, place 10 more balls in the vase and remove one ball. Continue repeating the procedure of adding 10 balls and removing one, but at each step reduce the time between steps by half. Question: At noon, how many balls are in the vase?
My answer: At noon, there are exactly 42 balls in the vase.
Of course, there are many other possible answers; this is a paradox, after all. Thoughts?
It would depend on how long it takes you to add and remove the balls each time.
If you go up to the van, open the door, count the balls out from the bag, put them in the van, take one out, put that into your bag, close the van and walk away, it takes you longer than the interval after about four or five times at most to just do the work and noon arrives quite quickly.
Assume you have an infinite supply of balls, and that you can do the operations faster than any finite speed. Zeno's paradox is not that hard of a paradox to deal with, after all 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + ... = 1.
How is every ball removed before noon, if at any point in time before noon, more have been added than have been removed? I just don't understand how you are getting that conclusion.But you are always adding more balls than you are removing. How can you end up with no balls?For example, if we imagine placing balls 1 - 10, and then removing ball 1 at 11:30am, then placing balls 11-20 and removing ball 2 at 11:45am, etc. It should be clear that every ball placed in the vase will have some number label, and also that every number label is removed at some point before noon. Therefore, all balls have been removed by noon, and so the vase is empty.
The only answer that makes sense to me is that as time approaches noon, the number of balls in the vase approaches infinity. The number doesn't also approach zero.
And damned if I understand how you got 42, other than the Douglas Adams reference.
Sure, that's the paradox. The number of balls in the vase keeps increasing, but so does the number of balls removed. The intuition says 'but balls are being placed faster than they are being removed', but why does that matter as long as every placed ball is removed before noon?
How is every ball removed before noon, if at any point in time before noon, more have been added than have been removed? I just don't understand how you are getting that conclusion.But you are always adding more balls than you are removing. How can you end up with no balls?For example, if we imagine placing balls 1 - 10, and then removing ball 1 at 11:30am, then placing balls 11-20 and removing ball 2 at 11:45am, etc. It should be clear that every ball placed in the vase will have some number label, and also that every number label is removed at some point before noon. Therefore, all balls have been removed by noon, and so the vase is empty.
The only answer that makes sense to me is that as time approaches noon, the number of balls in the vase approaches infinity. The number doesn't also approach zero.
And damned if I understand how you got 42, other than the Douglas Adams reference.
Sure, that's the paradox. The number of balls in the vase keeps increasing, but so does the number of balls removed. The intuition says 'but balls are being placed faster than they are being removed', but why does that matter as long as every placed ball is removed before noon?
If don't think that every ball is removed, then label the balls 1, 2, 3, .... What is the smallest numbered ball remaining at noon?
If don't think that every ball is removed, then label the balls 1, 2, 3, .... What is the smallest numbered ball remaining at noon?
Since we seem to be are able to label the balls freely we just assure that the removed balls has number 1, 11, 21 etc. Thus 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 , 10, 12 etc will remain..
Well, sure, if you do it that way, you'll end up with an infinite number of balls at the end. But if you're trying to understand how you can add 10 balls at every step and remove 1 ball at every step and end up with 0 balls at the end,
Well, sure, if you do it that way, you'll end up with an infinite number of balls at the end. But if you're trying to understand how you can add 10 balls at every step and remove 1 ball at every step and end up with 0 balls at the end,
That your labeling scheme results in that the lower index of the remaining balls increases beyond all values does not show that there are 0 balls left.
As I showed there are other labeling schemes wich doesnt have behave in that way.
The labeling scheme has nothing to do with the number of remaning balls.
The singularity catastrophe at 12 makes such arguments as yours invalid.
You are just revisiting "Hilberts hotel".
And I'm still waiting for a proof of that.I'm not claiming that every scheme for adding and removing balls results in 0 balls remaining. I'm claiming that there exists at least one scheme that results in 0 balls remaining.
I already did that. Here is another: number the balls with even numbers. You will then have all odd balls left.The labeling scheme has nothing to do with the number of remaning balls.
You can't just assume that. You have to prove it with a logical argument or disprove it with a counterexample. A counterexample like you exhibiting a scheme that leaves an infinite number of balls and me exhibiting a scheme that results in 0 balls remaining.
The singularity catastrophe at 12 makes such arguments as yours invalid.
The answer cannot be defined, because as t approaches noon, the number of balls remaining in the vase approaches infinity.How is every ball removed before noon, if at any point in time before noon, more have been added than have been removed? I just don't understand how you are getting that conclusion.But you are always adding more balls than you are removing. How can you end up with no balls?For example, if we imagine placing balls 1 - 10, and then removing ball 1 at 11:30am, then placing balls 11-20 and removing ball 2 at 11:45am, etc. It should be clear that every ball placed in the vase will have some number label, and also that every number label is removed at some point before noon. Therefore, all balls have been removed by noon, and so the vase is empty.
The only answer that makes sense to me is that as time approaches noon, the number of balls in the vase approaches infinity. The number doesn't also approach zero.
And damned if I understand how you got 42, other than the Douglas Adams reference.
Sure, that's the paradox. The number of balls in the vase keeps increasing, but so does the number of balls removed. The intuition says 'but balls are being placed faster than they are being removed', but why does that matter as long as every placed ball is removed before noon?
If you don't think that every ball is removed, then label the balls 1, 2, 3, .... What is the smallest numbered ball remaining at noon?
The posts here are what the paradox was designed to cause. It is supposed to expose the flawed nature of human intuition when dealing with infinity.
If one process starts listing the numbers 1,2,3,4,... and another process lists the same numbers 1,2,3,4,... except it operates 10 times faster, is there ever a number that the fast process reaches that the slow process does not? What does it even mean to go to infinity 'faster' than something else? Do these infinite processes even make sense as thought experiments?
Are there more even numbers than odd numbers? Are there more numbers divisible by three or numbers not divisible by three? Is the operation 'add 10 and remove 1' underspecified for an infinity of operations? Do we need to specify which ball to remove at each step? Why?
For those interested, this is called the Ross–Littlewood paradox.