C_Mucius_Scaevola
Veteran Member
Mary's womb was immaculate.
Her conception with Jesus was not sexual, not rape, not adultery.
Don't preach catechism at me pal!
bilby's right, you're wrong. The Immaculate Conception was the conception of Mary, which had to be immaculate because only a woman free from the stain of Original Sin could give birth to the son of God.
But don't beat yourself up about it, it's a common mistake.
It is NOT a mistake to say that Mary's conception of Jesus was immaculate. It is a mistake (unscriptural) to say that Mary's mother was ALSO immaculate when Mary was conceived.
I'm perfectly well aware what the Catholic Church thinks about how Mary herself was conceived.
But it sets up a chain of past-regression whereby Mary's mother also needs to be free from original sin in order to immaculately conceive Mary. Then too does Mary's grandmother need to be immaculately conceived lest she pass on her original sin. And so forth and so on all the way back to Eve.
You're right that it's not scriptural to say Mary's mother was immaculate, but then nobody says that. The Immaculate Conception concern's Mary's sinless state from conception, not her mother's. No regress because it's some kind of special dispensation from The Big Guy Upstairs, not an inherited trait.
There is no doctrine of Immaculate Conception concerning Jesus, because there's no need for it. Everybody "knew" he was conceived without sin because it didn't happen by the normal, "sinful" means. The IC doctrine was specifically cooked up to explain how the son of god, himself god, could be born through a base, sinful human being. Answer: god must have made it so that she didn't have the sinful nature we all share.