J842P
Veteran Member
I agree that it is also rampant in the US and that most Americans fail to recognize blatant bribery--e.g. campaign contributions by rich donors and businesses--as equivalent to less subtle forms of it.
The problem, of course, is in demonstrating that someone who has taken a campaign contribution or donation has actually in turn changed their vote or otherwise acted in a manner inconsistent with their own political ideology.
I have used this example many times, but it's perfectly appropriate as there were many such insinuations lobbed at Hillary Clinton regarding what is actually just a normal industry (i.e., being paid for giving a speech).
Obama's top donor (in the aggregate) was Goldman Sachs in 2008. Something on the order of a total of $1 million. He then famously shat on them (and the rest of the finance world) and Goldman Sachs shifted to backing Romney as a result. We all know how well that worked out for them.
The point being that it's not a bribe per se until the person receiving it does something expressly for the payee that the receiver would not have normally done and/or would be against their stated political policies/beliefs/tenets, etc. Parsing that is where the problem lies, which is why it' such easy, low-hanging fruit for Republicans to use against any Democrat, when the irony is, it is almost always a bribe when it comes to Republicans and rarely when it comes to Democrats.
Probably because Republicans are generally sociopaths who have no moral compass, so doing whatever anyone pays them to do is just par for their course. And if you have no moral compass to begin with, then pretty much ANY "contribution" is a bribe just axiomatically.
Yeah. Nothing to see here.
