Yes, it would be difficult for ATAR scores to cause knowledge backwards in time??
Actually, it would require ATAR scores to be psychic and know what all the countless factors are that will impact how much every student is going to learn in the future.
If the ATAR such a poor predictor of performance in engineering, the university should drop it as an entry criterion. But ATAR is not a poor predictor of university performance. Dropout rates are correlated with ATAR, for example.
Only about 26% of students are admitted on a basis other than their ATAR score. The overall correlation with dropout rates does not mean that a 10 point difference on it would predict dropout rates among those who choose one the hardest degrees, Engineering. The correlation is driven by the fact that students with ATAR's down at the 30th percentile have dropout rates of 25%, while students at the 100th percentile have a rate of only 3%. However, there is very little (about 2%) difference between the dropout rates of students at the 93rd percentile versus 83rd percentile, which is the kind of difference involved in the present policy. Plus, that tiny 2% difference in dropout rates is likely due to some of the lower scoring students being less motivated and committed to school. But such students are the one's who pick less difficult majors, not women who chose one of the hardest paths possible of entering an intellectually challenging major where they will face near certain sexism in both school and throughout their career. That requires and intrinsic passion that predicts perseverance.
So, contrary to the assumption inherent in your comment, there far from a 1:1 correspondence between a difference of X in ATAR scores and a difference of Y in the quality of work a person is able to do upon graduating with an Engineering degree.
My comment does not require a "1:1 correspondence".
A claim of "mathematical certainty" does presume that. If the relation is uncertain, variable, or non-linear, then it's plausible that a small 10 point difference in score does not reliably correspond to any difference in graduate quality in the specific context of females who chose Engineering.
Plus, the "quality of graduates" isn't even solely about what a graduate is potentially capable of doing, it includes what they actually will do given not only their skills, but their motivation, drive, and uniqueness of the perspective they bring which determines how much what they wind up doing actually adds to what would be there otherwise.
The ATAR represents achieved results; it already partly reflects motivation and "drive".
Motivation and drive is not a general quality but a highly context specific one. At most, ATAR only reflects some small, unreliable amount of motivation to do well in one's required high school courses within the context of whatever was going on to the person in high school. That has minimal application to the motivation that a person has to do well in courses they got to freely choose and that directly relate to their desired career, especially among women who so strongly desire it, they are willing to put up with the sexist nonsense.
Given how rampant sexism against women in STEM is, any woman willing and capable of putting up with it and successfully completing an Engineering degree is likely to have greater motivation and perseverance than the average male who completes such a degree that many men would have bailed on had they faced the type of adversity that female Engineers do.
This is asserted without evidence. You are making an assertion about the resilience of male and female engineering students, among other assertions.
It's a matter of basic logic that follows from 2 premises that cannot be reasonably denied: 1. People are more likely to bail on some effort the more obstacles they face. 2. There is a mountain of evidence that women face the additional obstacle of sexism when trying to enter STEM field (and Engineering may be the worst). From this we know that males entering Engineering do not face the additional selection pressure, which means many of them who would not be able handle that additional pressure and obstacle are retained in the field b/c they did not have to face it.
In addition, woman comprise half of the end users of the things that are engineered, for some products the vast majority of users, and sex differences are a factor in usability in a number of applications, females engineers would have a decided advantage in adding quality to products that is otherwise generally overlooked.
Even if I accepted this as true (I do not: I'd want to see evidence of everyday engineered objects that would have been different if only the engineering team had female input--can you name some?), that is not a reason to discriminate against men.
That's a matter of personal values, and as I said, I agree that there are ethical concerns about instituting such policies. However, it certainly is "a reason" to enact such policies, and one that is actually based in the principle of fairness and representative government.
Government paid for University should serve all members of the public equally. A major justification for subsidizing higher education is not just the benefit to the students but to society at large. If Engineers tend to identify, think about, and solve problems based upon their own perspective (and being human beings it is a certainty that they largely do), then the field of Engineers being subsidized by public money will not equally serve the interests of female members of the public. In that light, reserving some spots for female Engineers is "discrimination against men", only in a similar justifiable way that a strip club serving straight male clients hires female strippers.
In sum, not only is it highly questionable how much a lower ATAR translates into post degree Engineering capabilities, even in the decontextualized vacuum of academic work, but further, differences in those capabilities may not translate into difference in the quality of actual Engineering work performed in the real world where drive, social skills, perspective, and access to relevant but usually overlooked user experiences all interact to determine the ultimate "quality of Engineers" produced by that system.
Then lower the bar for all entrants.
That doesn't follow, and shows a basic failure of statistical understanding on your part, and fallacious reasoning in going between the general and the specific. Just b/c a lower entrance score does not automatically translate into a lower quality Engineer, doesn't mean that lower aggregated average scores won't on produce a lower aggregate average quality of Engineer. It just means that in particular cases and subgroups of cases, especially under particular circumstances, there is not valid basis to presume that a lower score will "with mathematical certainty" translate into those people being lower quality than Engineer with higher scores (but also different other qualities) would have been.
The Acts were created for stopping the otherwise rampant discrimination that has occurred for centuries and would still be occurring against women and minorities. Since there were virtually no instances of white males being the victims of discrimination, the Acts clearly were not created to solve a problem that did not exist.
The Acts protect all genders, ethnicities, etc. This was deliberate. If the commonwealth Sex Discrimination Act was meant to protect only women, it not be written as it is.
People do things to solve problems that actually exist. And when people are describing their solution to a known problem, they don't specify which non existent problems their solution wasn't intended to apply to. Also, virtually all laws are worded more generally than the particular problems they were designed to fix. This gives the greatest latitude in being able to apply them to unforeseen circumstances where relevant. But that general wording should not be mistaken for the law's original intent, otherwise you wind up with misapplications of the general to the specific, which is a pervasive problem in law enforcement. In addition, the Acts were not created to due to isolated, context-specific acts of bias, but to address a systematic pervasive problem of inequality caused by nearly all acts of discrimination were targeted against particular groups by the group in power. General wording ensures that the laws apply no matter what group winds up in majority power. However, when the effects of the prior discrimination continues to have material impact on causing the same old problem, then isolated, context-specific efforts to undo (aka, reverse) those problems are clearly not what the Acts were intended to prohibit.
However, those centuries of discrimination shaped the entire culture and put in place entrenched inequalities that continue to have impacts even when overt acts of such discrimination are removed, and will continue to do so for likely as or more centuries than that discrimination was openly allowed. Some forms of discrimination that favors those historically harmed groups are thought to be useful if not neccessary to stop that continued momentum of past discrimination and reverse it's harmful effects. Yes, these acts of reverse discrimination
They're discrimination, not "reverse" discrimination.
They are discrimination designed to be in the reverse direction of the centuries (and up until today) of misogynistic discrimination against women that has reduced their representation in particular endeavors. So, the term "reverse discrimination" is accurate and conveys the huge objective difference between it and the traditional discrimination that caused the problem these policies are intended to solve.
do violate the general principle of fairness to individuals, but they do so in an effort to mitigate the continued harms done to people from the centuries of violations of that same principle, and it is that harm that anti-discrimination laws were created to prevent.
The immense difference, lies in the clear ethical difference in goal and intent, with historical discrimination designed to cause harm to select outgroups
Historical discrimination was not "designed" to cause harm to outgroups, at least not all the time or as its main intention.
Of course it was. The people it harmed were (and still are by most conservatives) viewed as inherently lesser. The discrimination was designed to ensure that they were treated as lesser, which by definition causes them harm. Simultaneously, it was designed to create inequality in economic and political power, which is also by definition a harm to those given less of it. That is the exact opposite of this present type of favoritism which is designed to reduced those very inequalities caused by those past discrimination.
based on beliefs they are inherently less capable or deserving, while the efforts to discriminate in favor of those previously harmed groups is done to undo centuries of harm, without belief in any group being less deserving or capable, and without malice toward those members of the majority group that are negatively impacted.
Granted, one can make a reasoned argument that the long term impact of such well intentioned efforts to reverse the harm of past discrimination is ultimately negative and counterproductive, and that any gains are outweighed by those costs (which I myself have argued elsewhere). But one cannot reasonable equate the bigotry and selfish malice that motivates traditional discrimination of the majority against minorities with far more noble and well intentioned efforts to stop the momentum of past injustices that continue to cause harm by temporarily inverting who gets the advantages of favoritism.
You believe their intentions are noble because they claim they are. I do not see the intention as noble: I see them as thoroughly self serving with no actual evidence for the goodness or nobleness of their intentions.
Well then, it is rather sad that you don't believe that it is noble to stop the continued objective material harm that continues to be caused by centuries of extreme systematic and often violent discrimination against women and non-whites in nearly every facet of society.
That this is the goal of these policies is beyond rational dispute. This is proven by their very targeted application to situations where there has been clear discrimination resulting in large inequalities and under-representation (rather than trying to make existing inequalities even larger as is the case with all traditional discrimination the Acts were intended to stop).
This lowering of standards will not ratchet up women engineers to fifty percent of graduates. If the policy is to remain in place until that happens, the policy will be with us until the heat death of the universe.
Non-sequitur:No one claimed that a 50/50 split in Engineering is the endgame, simply to offset the extreme under-representation caused by historical and current bigotries and discrimination that impede female entry into and success in the field. Granted, there is no data telling us what the representation would and should be in the absence of all those countless discriminatory effects. So, the policy is just giving a relative few additional women the opportunity to try and enter the field, if they are willing and able. It will likely only result in a couple % boost to the female Engineers in Australia.