Unbeatable
Senior Member
- Joined
- Dec 13, 2005
- Messages
- 691
- Location
- PA
- Basic Beliefs
- moral and existential nihilism, igtheism, dysteleology, pragmatic methodological naturalism
Technically, that's pretty close to the meaning of my statement, since I happened to be focusing on connotation just then. But I don't think that connotation is the only difference between the two phrases."Sexual desire" has an awfully neutral connotation to it.
You mean it isn't rife with subjective moral judgment?
Yes, you're trying to have a Social Science discussion in the middle of a Political Discussions thread. Good luck getting very far in that effort without making some compromise or another. Hell, good luck sorting the PD posters who care about rational scientific explanations from the ones who merely pretend to care.Yeah, we're talking about a rational scientific explanation for rapes, so the causal factors should sound "neutral" and not sound like an effort to invent an explanation to cast negative moral judgment on the rapist or a "rape culture".
A deep hatred for women in general and close kin in particular. A rapist may have had a hard time growing up under a strict disciplinarian mother, sister, teacher or even father. Their victim may or may not have a resemblance to the mother. There was a case which names escape me at the minute where a serial killer and psycho first killed his mother then had sex with the corpse then finally decapitating it. His other victims all resembled his mother. He was raping and killing his mother over and over again.
Edmund Kemper. His mother was his second-to-last murder, not his first, and it was her severed head that he had sex with. Then he used it as a dart board. Before her, he did kill and then rape the corpses of six girls, often after arguments with his mother. After he finally worked his way up to killing his mother and her friend, he turned himself in.
The case of Edmund Kemper probably does not shed very much light upon the majority of rapists.