bilby
Fair dinkum thinkum
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The phrase "... a human being, or a fetus..." implies that that law considers these to be different things.I conditioned my statement with a "generally". Finding an exclusion isn't breaking the veracity of my statement. As far as most governments are concerned, life begins at birth: life insurance, health care, social security, dependents, disability coverage, birth certificates, etc...Do tell.Arguments regarding personhood date back millenia, have no concensus, and have no objective basis from statistics to rely on onee thing to justify one choice over the other. The only consistent thing is that legal provisions generally only apply to an individual post birth.
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Murder in California law - Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org
The Code defines murder as "the unlawful killing of a human being, or a fetus, with malice aforethought"
That is, this law had to be specifically worded to override the default legal assumption that legal provisions only apply to an individual post birth.
That apparent attempt at rebuttal is actually giving support to your position.
Had the law considered a fetus to be a class of human being, it either could have not mentioned it at all; Or if there was felt to be a need to clarify that the one is a subset of the other, it could have said "... a human being, including a fetus...".
But it doesn't say that. It specifies two groups which are protected from unlawful killing, only one of which is "human being".
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