How I could see the question relating to the thread would be that if, hypothetically, someone were to apply the 'rule' to men but not to [insert alternative example of the 'rule' here] then it raises the question, would that person feel that part of what it means to be a man is "to belong to a group to whom the rule applies"? And why? One can't say, 'because it would be helpful' if that is also true of the alternative example but the rule is not applied.
Or in other words "it would be either special pleading or circular logic"
Well, it could be but let's just play safe and say it would need an explanation. There might be one. And there might indeed be a valid and understandable one. Who knows? It would be worth exploring.
For example, a poster who shall remain nameless because he has wisely stayed out of the quagmire here, opined a few pages back that in the USA, for example, there does seem (to him) to be less urging from the left to ask Muslims to apologise for terrorism vs asking men to apologise for sexism, sexual abuse, assault, and rape. He offered one possible explanation, that such people see and acknowledge that denouncements of terrorism are already regularly made by many muslims. I queried that as an explanation, because even if true it seems to me that the same thing could be said of denouncements of rape, sexual assault, sexism and/or harassment by men.
Which then imo still leaves an interesting question about why the apparent difference in expectations?
Another explanation offered had to do with prevalence, and although I do think this can offer a potential explanation, it can also be outweighed by the fact that although islamic terrorism is less prevalent (in the USA at least) the outcomes can be fatal for multiple person from one incident. So I'm not sure (though I'm still thinking about it) that that's an adequate explanation either.
Now, note that said anonymous previous poster used the word 'apologise', whereas you used the word 'denounce'.
ETA: Open question: do some people (perhaps those cited by the previous poster) think that part of what it means to be a man is to belong to a group where the majority are obliged to apologise for and/or take responsibility for the undesirable attitudes and actions of a minority of the group, in a way that does not for some reason apply, or not apply to the same degree, in some other cases? If so, what makes some obligations 'legitimate' and others not, for those who might make a distinction (of emphasis at least) between one situation and another?
There may be nothing in this, and I myself don't know the answer (to either question). But I think it's at least interesting to explore.
How about, Jahryn, if I suggest to you that (at least in your example) it's not that men are being unreasonably 'targeted' (for this obligation we are talking about) but that muslims (for example) are being treated with extra deference, that they, not men, are the subject of the possible special pleading or are at least among the exceptions? I can't speak for the USA, but here in the UK for example, there is evidence to suggest that this is sometimes the case. For example, a long-running sexual abuse ring operated by muslim men in England (in the town of Rochdale) was, it is alleged (with some justification) not investigated properly because of a fear of authorities being seen as racist against muslims.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rochdale_child_sex_abuse_ring
That might be my offered explanation. If correct, then............there may be an inconsistency which is arguably not sufficiently justified, but it may not have much to do with the OP issue.
You may have noticed that I was thinking that through as I wrote and edited.
And I wonder if there is still something in the use of the word 'apologise' that may still be relevant here.