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120 Reasons to Reject Christianity

Fake faith healers work fake "miracles" even as we speak. Phillipine "psychic healers", Benny Hinn and others of that ilk.
Fake miracles, believed by millions are a dime a dozen.
 
There's only one qualifier: The Jesus miracle legend is the only one which cannot be explained as a product of normal mythologizing.

But then in order to qualify what "normal mythologizing" is you then have to qualify that it

  • Never refers to someone who supposedly lived within 4 decades of when the myth became popular
  • Only refers to myths about miracle workers
  • Only refers to myths that were actually written down
Now wait just a Zeus damn second. Right here in the Mythogical Heroes Official Requirements Checklist (MHORC)TM in Chapter 4, section III, paragraph 7, subsection II, part 2, subpara III it very clearly defines “normal mythologizing". So it proves that Zeus did speak to Narcissus beyond a shadow of any doubt.


TM Authored by Lumpy with invisible ink, and can only be seen in the dim glow of rainbows from farting unicorns
 
Fake faith healers work fake "miracles" even as we speak. Phillipine "psychic healers", Benny Hinn and others of that ilk.
Fake miracles, believed by millions are a dime a dozen.
It's quite an observation to watch all the "believers" flock to these scumbags and eat this shit up.

Sometimes I think of religion as proto-intellect, our brain attempting to understand and explain phenomena the best way possible given the limits of personal knowledge and experience. It keeps the brain active and prepares it for bigger, better things. But for some people it's a bust and they just keep suckling at the teat of victimhood, making these "miracle workers" rich. An interesting phenomenon all around.
 
What was "normal mythologizing"? or "Instant miracle myth"? Why was Jesus Christ the ONLY example of an "Instant miracle" hero?

There's only one qualifier: The Jesus miracle legend is the only one which cannot be explained as a product of normal mythologizing.

But then in order to qualify what "normal mythologizing" is you then have to qualify that it
  • Never refers to someone who supposedly lived within 4 decades of when the myth became popular
No, that's not "what 'normal mythologizing' is." Nothing about normal mythologizing excludes someone who lived within 4 decades of when the myth became popular -- or even within 4 DAYS of when the myth became popular.

Rather, it is simply an empirical fact that miracle myths did not develop this early after the alleged events occurred. The alleged Jesus events occurred around 30 AD. The written reports about them that we know of are dated 40 or 50 years later, or 30 years later for the resurrection event.

On the other hand, for ALL other miracle myth legends, the time span between the alleged event and the earliest report was several generations, and usually several centuries. Nothing says a normal myth could not have developed earlier than this -- rather, it's just an empirical fact that none did develop earlier than this.

This is an empirical fact, not part of the definition of "normal mythologizing." It's not based on "what 'normal mythologizing' is" but on the empirical facts which were always the case in all the examples of mythologizing that you can cite.


Miracle legends proliferate faster in modern times.

In fact, let's say that perhaps today, in the 21st century, there are myths which develop sooner than this after the alleged miracle event, because of the advantage of the modern Internet. Perhaps you could argue that there are some such cases. Or maybe in the 20th century when we had widespread publishing and broadcast media to help propagate a new cult, we might have some cases. Perhaps it has been possible to win 1 or 2 thousand disciples within a year or 2, whereas in the period before 1500 AD this surely was not possible.

So, such a case is still a miracle myth or a case of mythologizing, which occurred (if there are any cases) in a shorter time. So the short time does not disqualify it as a legitimate case of mythologizing. As an empirical fact there are no such cases prior to 1500 (or 1600 or 1700?) AD.

So the long time length is not part of the meaning of "mythologizing," which conceivably could happen within only a few days. Also, that the myth hero had to be a famous celebrity also is not part of the meaning of "mythologizing." Theoretically the myth hero could be an unknown obscure person who did absolutely nothing of any significance. But it's an empirical fact that there are no such cases.

I.e., "mythologizing" (i.e., miracle event mythologizing) just means that a miracle claim is made, i.e., that a miracle event happened, but the truth is that no such event really happened. So, how did the fiction originate and become believed widely by people? To pose this question it doesn't matter what the time length is between the alleged event and the later claim or report that is believed.

It could be only 40 DAYS, or even 40 hours or minutes from the time of the reported event and the time of the report about it. Don't insert a DEFINITION of "normal mythologizing" that it had to be a long period of time between the event and the later report of it. That's only an EMPIRICAL FACT about all the miracle claims that were made, i.e., that there was a long time span.

The long period that always transpired is not part of the meaning of "mythologizing" or "normal mythologizing." Rather, it's just an empirical fact that this is normally what happened with mythologizing. It usually occurred over many generations or centuries, not just 30 or 40 or 50 years. You can't give any example of a miracle myth that emerged in only a few years or only one generation.

Now, you might cite an example like the Vespasian miracle story, which appeared in a shorter time than normal. But this obviously was due to this person's wide celebrity status as a person of wide repute and power. So this one miracle story about him appears in the record only about 50 years later. His high status and power is the obvious explanation.

So, it's an empirical fact that "mythologizing" occurred in the case of a famous celebrity, or a person of wide repute, someone of great distinction, and usually many generations or centuries later, though in some cases the miracle legend could occur within a few decades, or less than 100 years. But even in this Vespasian case, we have only this one miracle story and no others.

The "normal mythologizing" process just means that which we see as an empirical fact which took place in all the miracle legends. It happened as a result of the wide reputation of the miracle hero figure, who got mythologized, and also it generally required a long period of time, usually several generations. It required CENTURIES in the case of the pagan figures like Asclepius or Perseus or Apollo etc. This is just an empirical fact, not part of the definition of "normal mythologizing."

What you have to explain, and have still not explained, is how such mythologizing took place in the case of Jesus, who did not have the advantage of the long career and widespread recognition or status (which was the case with all the other miracle heroes) and also whose miracles reportedly took place only 30 or 40 or 50 years prior to the earliest reports of them.

Why were there NO OTHER CASES of such mythologizing? The wide reputation is not incidental but was always a necessary component of the mythologizing. It's because of the wide recognition or status of the miracle figure that he became mythologized. In all cases he was a famous figure, or someone of widely recognized status in his time, which is why he became mythologized.

The case of Jesus appears to be the only exception to this pattern. He was not a famous person or a person of recognized status. What is another exception?

This is NOT about "what 'normal mythologizing' is" -- it's about the empirical fact that mythologizing did not happen in such a short time, but required much longer, and also it was always a famous celebrity or popular hero figure who was mythologized, or someone with a long distinguished career, etc. Not someone like Jesus who was an unknown during his lifetime (assuming he did no miracle acts).

Nothing rules out the possibility of someone being mythologized in a short time, or someone obscure becoming a myth hero, but the empirical fact is that this did not ever happen. Or you might find 1 or 2 cases of a shorter time span, which is the exception, but even so it was always a famous celebrity. So there were no exceptions to these facts about how mythologizing took place. These facts must have been necessary as something that caused the mythologizing to take place. I.e., these facts EXPLAIN HOW the mythologizing happened. We look for cases where these facts were not so and we can't find any. Theoretically there could be such cases, but empirically there are no such cases.

So, you have still not explained how we have this ONE CASE ONLY of a figure who was mythologized and where these empirical facts are missing, and thus we are left without any way to explain how the mythologizing could have happened in his case, as we can explain it in all the other cases. Like Perseus, Apollo, Zeus, Horus, etc. Or Apollonius of Tyana and Simon Magus.

Why is it that we can explain how the mythologizing took place in all these other cases, but we cannot explain this in the case of Jesus? this being the ONLY case where we cannot explain it?


  • Only refers to myths about miracle workers
The mythologizing is much more difficult to explain in the case of miracle claims, because the truth is that people generally do NOT believe miracle claims unless they see some convincing evidence.

Our whole topic begins with the retort: "But there were others who also did miracles, or allegedly did them." So this is what we're talking about. I.e., miracle legends, not just any myth-making. In the case of Jesus we have evidence that they happened, but in the other cases we do not (or we have virtually none).

NON-miracle legends can also emerge, but they're less sensational, and their spread is less noteworthy and more easily explained, because people have less difficulty believing something that is normal, or which are normal events rather than superhuman or miracle events. So we're not talking about NON-miracle legends. We're talking about how miracle stories became popular legends. And about the CREDIBILITY of the stories, which are questioned precisely because they're about miracle claims, which are inherently less credible and require extra evidence.

"Mythologizing" doesn't necessarily mean miracle stories only, but it's the miracle stories that we need to explain, because it's these that we don't believe generally, and yet the stories got transmitted and recorded and believed, so we need to explain how that happened. And to just say "people made up shit" and other slogans does not explain anything. Why did so many people believe it and spread it and eventually record it in writing? You haven't answered this, except for your emotional outburst that "People made up shit!"

But the calm rational non-outburst answer is that the hero figure was a famous celebrity, or had something that distinguished him. And it was common for stories or legends to evolve over many generations or centuries. This answers how it happened in ALL the cases you can name.


  • Only refers to myths that were actually written down
We know NOTHING of what happened 1000 or 2000 years ago except what was written down. Of course we're talking about what was written down or recorded for us. If you don't want to talk about what was written down, then you don't want to talk about what happened 2000 years ago.

Do you understand that we're talking about history here? Do you understand what "1000 years ago" or "2000 years ago" means? Of course we have to limit this to what was "actually written down." We can add to this anything discovered that does NOT come from the written record, but hardly any such thing exists. 99% of our historical knowledge is based on what was "written down."

We can't put away the difficult questions by demanding that all reference to what was "written down" be expunged from the discussion. We must rely on the written record in order to be able to deal with any question about what happened 2000 years ago. All the "reasons to reject Christianity" are based on the historical record that is written down. If all reference to what is "written down" has to be disqualified, then there are no "reasons to reject Christianity" left. All those reasons are based on what was written down.


And one of the unique features of the Jesus miracle legend is that it's the only one which cannot be explained as a product of mythologizing, since it developed too soon after the historical person lived

A baseless assertion you argue using circular reasoning and have yet to produce any evidence for.

You mean it's a baseless assertion that Jesus lived 30 or 40 or 50 years before the first reports about him? Do you deny this? And the time distance for the other miracle legends, the pagan gods, is many centuries. Right? You need additional evidence for this? When do you claim those original pagan heroes lived, and when do you claim the reports about them are dated?


This has been pointed out numerous times in this thread.

No, everyone agrees that the earliest reports about Jesus are 30 or 40 or 50 years after the events reportedly happened, and that the earliest reports about the pagan gods occur at least 500 or 1000 years after the events happened (if those pagan heroes were real historical persons).


References by Josephus are obvious forgeries and . . .

Let's not get into that -- it's not necessary here. It's the gospel accounts which first report on the miracles of Jesus, or Paul writing in the 50s AD who first reports on the resurrection event.


All other references in the historical record were separated from the allegations by nearly a century and . . .

Save Tacitus for a different topic. That's not about mythologizing or the miracle events.


You've never dealt with the fact that this myth appeared in Rome first, not in or around Jerusalem where it supposedly happened.

You mean the first gospel account. We don't really know where it first appeared. However, even if Mark was written in Rome, that doesn't tell us where the first sources came from. The Mark writer had sources, and we don't know where they came from. Almost surely much of his sources originated from Galilee or Judea. He got this from what he had heard, and from written sources available at that time.

This is very obvious from the "Rejection at Nazareth" story which it would be impossible for a later Christian writer to fabricate. Mark obviously had this story in some form as an earlier source, not as something he concocted. And many other elements in Mark had to have originated from a source near to the events.


Distance measured in thousands of miles would have been every bit as effective as time measured in centuries to separate the myth from any vestigial facts that may have formed an historical nugget.

Again, we don't know that Mark was written in Rome. It might have been, but you can't keep repeating this as dogma. It's only one possibility.

And anyway, it is based on several sources, and some of these were surely near to the events reported.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Mark
The author used a variety of sources derived from accounts predating the gospel's composition, such as conflict stories (Mark 2:1-3:6), apocalyptic discourse (4:1-35), and collections of sayings (although not the Gospel of Thomas and probably not the Q source). . . .

Rome (Mark uses a number of Latin terms),Galilee, Antioch (third-largest city in the Roman Empire, located in northern Syria), and southern Syria have all been offered as alternative places of authorship.

Further, even if there was some geographical distance from the events, this does not distort the accuracy of the account. If the travel time was much less, then this could help improve the reliability, but it's really only the TIME factor that is relevant, not the geographical distance. If the reports arrived early to the author/editor, then it doesn't matter that it might have been a long distance that the reports traveled.

So your obsession with a possible long traveling distance from the original location to that of the author/editor is artificial. There is much in Mark that is clearly of local origin even if it traveled far to the eventual point of the final composition.


Actually, it isn't that we have none at all. We've talked about some possible other cults. We have one document about the Apollonius of Tyana reputed miracles. And there's mention of the Simon Magus cult. Along with these, who must have been unusual characters in some way, there must have been hundreds more, mostly less important than these two, which also drew limited attention and were dismissed.

Ahhh, so another qualifier:

  • Must have become popular
You have now combined the logical fallacy of appeal to popularity with your already established sharpshooter fallacy. Multiplying fallacies doesn't increase the validity of the argument.

But "popular" just means that someone believed it, which is all we have for ANY historical events. We believe the reported events because someone believed it or claimed it was true and reported it. The more reports there are, the more certain we can be that the claims are true. I.e., the more "popular" the belief that it happened, the more likely it is that it did happen.

So once again, your complaint against the gospel accounts and reason to disqualify them are reasons which would also disqualify ALL our sources for history. The only reason some history reports are believed more than others is that they are more "popular" -- i.e., there are more reports for them and more indication that they were generally believed.

We believe Julius Caesar was assassinated because there were many who believed it and reported it, i.e., because this was popularly believed. If you throw out every report saying it happened and every claim that people believed it, we'd have no evidence that Caesar was assassinated. It's the POPULARITY of this belief that makes it more credible. If the report of the Caesar assassination was not popular or widely believed, then it would be less credible for us as part of the true historical record.


It's simply not true that anyone can just "make up shit" and spread it around and thousands are soon believing it. It has never happened and you cannot name one case. And if it could happen, we'd have many examples of it, not ONE ONLY.

So I provided you a list of people who "made up shit" and spread it around and thousands (millions) were soon believing it.

No, we were talking about miracle claims. It's about the miracle events in the gospels that was our topic. Your answer to those claims is that "People make up shit," and so I used your phrase, but this was about making up miracle stories. Now you're trying to change it to making up ANY "shit" -- which is not what this is about.

It's not true that anyone could make up miracle stories, or claims about something highly improbable, and that everyone just started believing it. No, the reason some such claims were believed is that there was some evidence that it was true. Or in some cases it was a claim about a popular celebrity figure who had a wide reputation, and because of this people were more likely to believe it.

Whatever the explanation, it's true only in some cases that the claims were believed. Most miracle stories were NOT believed by people, because the claims were not credible. When the claims were believed, we need to look for the reason why. You cannot simply dismiss it with your "People make up shit" outburst. This does not explain it. Usually when someone did "make up shit" it was not believed if it was something weird or highly improbable or contrary to common experience.


Not only has it happened often in the annals of history it has happened thousands upon thousands of times in your own lifetime (provided you are more than 10 years old).

We're talking about events several centuries ago, not today when anyone can post something nutty on the Internet and maybe someone appears to "believe" it.

Why can't you give one other example of a miracle legend, from 1000 or 2000 or 3000 years ago, where we have evidence in the form of multiple documents appearing soon after the miracle event reportedly happened? Why won't you offer an example instead of trying to dismiss this legitimate question? Answer: there are no other examples. This is the only case which cannot be explained by the mythologizing process which we see at work in all the other cases, where it's obvious what factors took place that caused the mythologizing to happen.


Your response was:

You're off topic. We're talking about instant miracle legends, not just ANY "bullshit." None of the above started an instant miracle hero myth that spread and got published in multiple sources.

So we can add goalpost shifting to your list of crimes against logic just on a single page.

No, nothing has shifted. From the beginning, 130 pages ago, the point was that Jesus performed miracle acts, and these appeared suddenly in the record, in written documents, in only 1-2 generations from the reputed events, whereas for all other miracle legends it required much longer than this, i.e., the pagan miracle heroes like Horus and Perseus and Asclepius, etc. For these it required CENTURIES for the stories to appear in written documents, and this long time gap is evidence that mythologizing must have happened during that time, so that the stories are less credible.

From the beginning you have been asked to explain why the only exception to this is the Jesus miracle legend, and why this is not therefore more credible than those pagan legends. Also, how could this Jesus legend evolve into a myth when the historical figure himself was not a famous or well-reputed celebrity of high status, as was the case for all other reputed miracle myth heroes, i.e., all the ones we can identify as real historical persons.

So there has been no shifting of the goalpost. You could not answer this question from the very beginning, and you still cannot answer it.


You made a statement and were demonstrated to be false on it. At least own up to that. Or are you going to argue somehow that when it comes to miracle workers people use better critical thinking skills than when it comes to these other scams I mentioned?

You and others have said this yourself. If someone says, "It's raining outside," you believe it, but if they say, "A flying saucer just landed," or "Zombies just rose out of their graves," etc., we don't believe it, or we demand evidence first. So yes, it's obvious that we are more skeptical when miracle or paranormal claims are made as opposed to claims about normal events.

A scam artist might lie to you about whether it's raining, or about whether a certain investment is risky. Scamming is not necessarily about miracle claims. But in the case of miracle claims, we are always MORE skeptical, and people do not believe it as easily. They might often choose to believe what they hope is true, including something miraculous, but in comparing a miracle claim with a NON-miracle claim, it is always the miracle claim that is more difficult to believe, all else being equal. And so when people do believe such a claim, we need to ask why they believe it, and we can determine what the reasons are.

And mythologizing happens easier if certain conditions are met -- such as a high celebrity status of the one making the miracle claim, including his long tradition or long career or longstanding reputation -- or especially if the miracle hero is a longstanding "god" or deity who has been worshiped for centuries. These and other factors explain how the target audience might be persuaded and choose to believe.

So yes, it is true that people are more skeptical, or more critical in their thinking, if the promoters make miracle claims to them, in contrast to NON-miracle claims.

And the more strange or weird the claim is, the less we believe it. It's in degrees that we become more skeptical. We are more skeptical about advertising claims that are too extreme or "too good to be true" than we are about the more moderate claims.

So it was not false to say that people are more skeptical when you make a miracle claim to them than if you make a claim about something normal.


And the Jesus myth was far from "instant." 40 years is not instant

Which is a shorter time period -- the time gap of 150 years between the reported Apollonius of Tyana miracles and the one source we have for this, or the time gap of 30 or 40 or 50 years between the reported Jesus miracles and the 4 (5) sources we have for these miracles?

Or the 1000+ years time gap between the reported Perseus miracles and the first written reports we have of these miracles?

Are you still having difficulty figuring out that several centuries is a longer time period than 30 or 40 or 50 years? Don't you understand that one century is 100 years? and that 100 years is much longer than 30 or 40 or 50 years? Why must you get hung up on the word "instant" -- don't you understand that the ancient history documents were typically much later than only 50 years after the events they reported? Are you having trouble registering this?

Haven't you yet figured out that it was not unusual for the later document reporting the event to be dated even 100 years later? that even "primary sources" were sometimes 100 years after the reported events, such as Tacitus who is a "primary source" for the life of Caesar Augustus?

This 30 or 40 or 50 years was a relatively SHORT SHORT time space from the date of the Jesus events to the first written reports about those events. Our information about Jesus is just as reliable as the sources for most of our historical record for that period. And by comparison to any other miracle hero legends, this time gap between the alleged events and the first reports of them is far less for the Jesus events. It's in this sense that he is the only "instant miracle myth."

Instead of pretending you don't understand this point, which is not really so difficult to grasp, why don't you get serious and give us an example of another such "instant miracle myth" from before 1500 AD. Or, since there isn't any example, why don't you give us a reason why it is that we have ONLY THIS ONE example of such an "instant miracle myth" and no others.
 
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But then in order to qualify what "normal mythologizing" is you then have to qualify that it
  • Never refers to someone who supposedly lived within 4 decades of when the myth became popular
No, that's not "what 'normal mythologizing' is." Nothing about normal mythologizing excludes someone who lived within 4 decades of when the myth became popular -- or even within 4 DAYS of when the myth became popular.

Rather, it is simply an empirical fact that miracle myths did not develop this early after the alleged events occurred. The alleged Jesus events occurred around 30 AD. The written reports about them that we know of are dated 40 or 50 years later, or 30 years later for the resurrection event.

On the other hand, for ALL other miracle myth legends, the time span between the alleged event and the earliest report was several generations, and usually several centuries. Nothing says a normal myth could not have developed earlier than this -- rather, it's just an empirical fact that none did develop earlier than this.

This is an empirical fact, not part of the definition of "normal mythologizing." It's not based on "what 'normal mythologizing' is" but on the empirical facts which were always the case in all the examples of mythologizing that you can cite.


Miracle legends proliferate faster in modern times.

In fact, let's say that perhaps today, in the 21st century, there are myths which develop sooner than this after the alleged miracle event, because of the advantage of the modern Internet. Perhaps you could argue that there are some such cases. Or maybe in the 20th century when we had widespread publishing and broadcast media to help propagate a new cult, we might have some cases. Perhaps it has been possible to win 1 or 2 thousand disciples within a year or 2, whereas in the period before 1500 AD this surely was not possible.

So, such a case is still a miracle myth or a case of mythologizing, which occurred (if there are any cases) in a shorter time. So the short time does not disqualify it as a legitimate case of mythologizing. As an empirical fact there are no such cases prior to 1500 (or 1600 or 1700?) AD.

So the long time length is not part of the meaning of "mythologizing," which conceivably could happen within only a few days. Also, that the myth hero had to be a famous celebrity also is not part of the meaning of "mythologizing." Theoretically the myth hero could be an unknown obscure person who did absolutely nothing of any significance. But it's an empirical fact that there are no such cases.

I.e., "mythologizing" (i.e., miracle event mythologizing) just means that a miracle claim is made, i.e., that a miracle event happened, but the truth is that no such event really happened. So, how did the fiction originate and become believed widely by people? To pose this question it doesn't matter what the time length is between the alleged event and the later claim or report that is believed.

It could be only 40 DAYS, or even 40 hours or minutes from the time of the reported event and the time of the report about it. Don't insert a DEFINITION of "normal mythologizing" that it had to be a long period of time between the event and the later report of it. That's only an EMPIRICAL FACT about all the miracle claims that were made, i.e., that there was a long time span.

The long period that always transpired is not part of the meaning of "mythologizing" or "normal mythologizing." Rather, it's just an empirical fact that this is normally what happened with mythologizing. It usually occurred over many generations or centuries, not just 30 or 40 or 50 years. You can't give any example of a miracle myth that emerged in only a few years or only one generation.

Now, you might cite an example like the Vespasian miracle story, which appeared in a shorter time than normal. But this obviously was due to this person's wide celebrity status as a person of wide repute and power. So this one miracle story about him appears in the record only about 50 years later. His high status and power is the obvious explanation.

So, it's an empirical fact that "mythologizing" occurred in the case of a famous celebrity, or a person of wide repute, someone of great distinction, and usually many generations or centuries later, though in some cases the miracle legend could occur within a few decades, or less than 100 years. But even in this Vespasian case, we have only this one miracle story and no others.

The "normal mythologizing" process just means that which we see as an empirical fact which took place in all the miracle legends. It happened as a result of the wide reputation of the miracle hero figure, who got mythologized, and also it generally required a long period of time, usually several generations. It required CENTURIES in the case of the pagan figures like Asclepius or Perseus or Apollo etc. This is just an empirical fact, not part of the definition of "normal mythologizing."

What you have to explain, and have still not explained, is how such mythologizing took place in the case of Jesus, who did not have the advantage of the long career and widespread recognition or status (which was the case with all the other miracle heroes) and also whose miracles reportedly took place only 30 or 40 or 50 years prior to the earliest reports of them.

Why were there NO OTHER CASES of such mythologizing? The wide reputation is not incidental but was always a necessary component of the mythologizing. It's because of the wide recognition or status of the miracle figure that he became mythologized. In all cases he was a famous figure, or someone of widely recognized status in his time, which is why he became mythologized.

The case of Jesus appears to be the only exception to this pattern. He was not a famous person or a person of recognized status. What is another exception?

This is NOT about "what 'normal mythologizing' is" -- it's about the empirical fact that mythologizing did not happen in such a short time, but required much longer, and also it was always a famous celebrity or popular hero figure who was mythologized, or someone with a long distinguished career, etc. Not someone like Jesus who was an unknown during his lifetime (assuming he did no miracle acts).

Nothing rules out the possibility of someone being mythologized in a short time, or someone obscure becoming a myth hero, but the empirical fact is that this did not ever happen. Or you might find 1 or 2 cases of a shorter time span, which is the exception, but even so it was always a famous celebrity. So there were no exceptions to these facts about how mythologizing took place. These facts were necessary as something that caused the mythologizing to take place. I.e., these facts EXPLAIN HOW the mythologizing happened. We look for cases where these facts were not so and we can't find any. Theoretically there could be such cases, but empirically there are no such cases.

So, you have still not explained how we have this ONE CASE ONLY of a figure who was mythologized and where these empirical facts are missing, and thus we are left without any way to explain how the mythologizing could have happened in his case, as we can explain it in all the other cases. Like Perseus, Apollo, Zeus, Horus, etc. Or Apollonius of Tyana and Simon Magus.

Why is it that we can explain how the mythologizing took place in all these other cases, but we cannot explain this in the case of Jesus? this being the ONLY case where we cannot explain it?


  • Only refers to myths about miracle workers
The mythologizing is much more difficult to explain in the case of miracle claims, because the truth is that people generally do NOT believe miracle claims unless they see some convincing evidence.

Our whole topic begins with the retort: "But there were others who also did miracles, or allegedly did them." So this is what we're talking about. I.e., miracle legends. In the case of Jesus we have evidence that they happened, but in the other cases we do not (or we have virtually none).

NON-miracle legends can also emerge, but their spread is more easily explained, because people have less difficulty believing something that is normal, or which are normal events rather than superhuman or miracle events. So we're not talking about NON-miracle legends. We're talking about how miracle stories became popular legends. And about the CREDIBILITY of the stories, which is questioned precisely because it's about miracle claims, because these are inherently less credible and require extra evidence.

"Mythologizing" doesn't necessarily mean miracle stories only, but it's the miracle stories that we need to explain, because it's these that we don't believe generally, and yet the stories got transmitted and recorded and believed, so we need to explain how that happened. And to just say "people made up shit" and other slogans does not explain anything. Why did so many people believe it and spread it and eventually record it in writing? You haven't answered this, except for your emotional outburst that "People made up shit!"

But the calm rational non-outburst answer is that the hero figure was a famous celebrity, or had something that distinguished him. And it was common for stories or legends to evolve over many generations or centuries. This answers how it happened in ALL the cases you can name.


  • Only refers to myths that were actually written down
We know NOTHING of what happened 1000 or 2000 years ago except what was written down. Of course we're talking about what was written down or recorded for us. If you don't want to talk about what was written down, then you don't want to talk about what happened 2000 years ago.

Do you understand that we're talking about history here? Do you understand what "1000 years ago" or "2000 years ago" means? Of course we have to limit this to what was recorded in writing. We can add to this anything discovered that does NOT come from the written record, but hardly any such thing exists. 99% of our historical knowledge is based on what was "written down."

We can't put away the difficult questions by demanding that all reference to what was "written down" be expunged from the discussion. We must rely on the written record in order to be able to deal with any question about what happened 2000 years ago. All the "reasons to reject Christianity" are based on the historical record that is written down. If all reference to what is "written down" has to be disqualified, then there are no "reasons to reject Christianity" left. All those reasons are based on what was written down.


And one of the unique features of the Jesus miracle legend is that it's the only one which cannot be explained as a product of mythologizing, since it developed too soon after the historical person lived

A baseless assertion you argue using circular reasoning and have yet to produce any evidence for.

You mean it's a baseless assertion that Jesus lived 30 or 40 or 50 years before the first reports about him? Do you deny this? And the time distance for the other miracle legends, the pagan gods, is many centuries. Right? You need additional evidence for this? When do you claim those original pagan heroes lived, and when do you claim the reports about them are dated?


This has been pointed out numerous times in this thread.

No, everyone agrees that the earliest reports about Jesus are 30 or 40 or 50 years after the events reportedly happened, and that the earliest reports about the pagan gods occur at least 500 or 1000 years after the events happened (if those pagan heroes were real historical persons).


References by Josephus are obvious forgeries and . . .

Let's not get into that -- it's not necessary here. It's the gospel accounts which first report on the miracles of Jesus, or Paul writing in the 50s AD who first reports on the resurrection event.


All other references in the historical record were separated from the allegations by nearly a century and . . .

Save Tacitus for a different topic. That's not about mythologizing or the miracle events.


You've never dealt with the fact that this myth appeared in Rome first, not in or around Jerusalem where it supposedly happened.

You mean the first gospel account. We don't really know where it first appeared. However, even if Mark was written in Rome, that doesn't tell us where the first sources came from. The Mark writer had sources, and we don't know where they came from. Almost surely much of his sources originated from Galilee or Judea. He got this from what he had heard, and from written sources available at that time.

This is very obvious from the "Rejection at Nazareth" story which it would be impossible for a later Christian writer to fabricate. Mark obviously had this story in some form as an earlier source, not as something he concocted. And many other elements in Mark had to have originated from a source near to the events.


Distance measured in thousands of miles would have been every bit as effective as time measured in centuries to separate the myth from any vestigial facts that may have formed an historical nugget.

Again, we don't know that Mark was written in Rome. It might have been, but you can't keep repeating this as dogma. It's only one possibility.

And anyway, it is based on several sources, and some of these were surely near to the events reported.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Mark
The author used a variety of sources derived from accounts predating the gospel's composition, such as conflict stories (Mark 2:1-3:6), apocalyptic discourse (4:1-35), and collections of sayings (although not the Gospel of Thomas and probably not the Q source). . . .

Rome (Mark uses a number of Latin terms),Galilee, Antioch (third-largest city in the Roman Empire, located in northern Syria), and southern Syria have all been offered as alternative places of authorship.

Further, even if there was some geographical distance from the events, this does not distort the accuracy of the account. If the travel time was much less, then this could help improve the reliability, but it's really only the TIME factor that is relevant, not the geographical distance. If the reports arrived early to the author/editor, then it doesn't matter that it might have been a long distance that the reports traveled.

So your obsession with a possible long traveling distance from the original location to that of the author/editor is artificial. There is much in Mark that is clearly of local origin even if it traveled far to the eventual point of the final composition.


Actually, it isn't that we have none at all. We've talked about some possible other cults. We have one document about the Apollonius of Tyana reputed miracles. And there's mention of the Simon Magus cult. Along with these, who must have been unusual characters in some way, there must have been hundreds more, mostly less important than these two, which also drew limited attention and were dismissed.

Ahhh, so another qualifier:

  • Must have become popular
You have now combined the logical fallacy of appeal to popularity with your already established sharpshooter fallacy. Multiplying fallacies doesn't increase the validity of the argument.

But "popular" just means that someone believed it, which is all we have for ANY historical events. We believe the reported events because someone believed it or claimed it was true and reported it. The more reports there are, the more certain we can be that the claims are true. I.e., the more "popular" the belief that it happened, the more credible is the claim that it happened.

So once again, you are just disqualifying the gospel accounts for reasons which would also disqualify ALL our sources for history. The only reason some history reports are believed more than others is that they are more "popular" -- i.e., there are more reports for them and more indication that they were generally believed.

We believe Julius Caesar was assassinated because there were many who believed it and reported it, i.e., because this was popularly believed. If you throw out every report saying it happened and every claim that people believed it, we'd have no evidence that Caesar was assassinated. It's the POPULARITY of this belief that makes it more credible. If the report of the Caesar assassination was not popular or widely believed, then it would be less credible for us as part of the true historical record.


Finally, let's go back and revisit this:

It's simply not true that anyone can just "make up shit" and spread it around and thousands are soon believing it. It has never happened and you cannot name one case. And if it could happen, we'd have many examples of it, not ONE ONLY.

So I provided you a list of people who "made up shit" and spread it around and thousands (millions) were soon believing it.

No, we were talking about miracle claims. It's about the miracle events in the gospels that was our topic. Your answer to those claims is that "People make up shit," and so I used your phrase, but this was about making up miracle stories. Now you're trying to change it to making up ANY "shit" -- which is not what this is about.

It's not true that anyone could make up miracle stories, or claims about something highly improbable, and that everyone just started believing it. No, the reason some such claims were believed is that there was some evidence that it was true. Or in some cases it was a claim about a popular celebrity figure who had a wide reputation, and because of this people were more likely to believe it.

Whatever the explanation, it's true only in some cases that the claims were believed. Most miracle stories were NOT believed by people, because the claims were not credible. When the claims were believed, we need to look for the reason why. You cannot simply dismiss it with your "People make up shit" outburst. This does not explain it. Usually when someone did "make up shit" it was not believed if it was something weird or highly improbable or contrary to common experience.


Not only has it happened often in the annals of history it has happened thousands upon thousands of times in your own lifetime (provided you are more than 10 years old).

We're talking about events several centuries ago, not today when anyone can post something nutty on the Internet and maybe someone appears to "believe" it.

Why can't you give one other example of a miracle legend, from 1000 or 2000 or 3000 years ago, where we have evidence in the form of multiple documents appearing soon after the miracle event reportedly happened? Why won't you offer an example instead of trying to dismiss this legitimate question? Answer: there are no other examples. This is the only case which cannot be explained by the mythologizing process which we see at work in all the other cases, where it's obvious what factors took place that caused the mythologizing to happen.


Your response was:

You're off topic. We're talking about instant miracle legends, not just ANY "bullshit." None of the above started an instant miracle hero myth that spread and got published in multiple sources.

So we can add goalpost shifting to your list of crimes against logic just on a single page.

No, nothing has shifted. From the beginning, 130 pages ago, the point was that Jesus performed miracle acts, and these appeared suddenly in the record, in written documents, in only 1-2 generations from the reputed events, whereas for all other miracle legends it required much longer than this, i.e., the pagan miracle heroes like Horus and Perseus and Asclepius, etc. For these it required CENTURIES for the stories to appear in written documents, and this long time gap is evidence that mythologizing must have happened during that time, so that the stories are less credible.

From the beginning you have been asked to explain why the only exception to this is the Jesus miracle legend, and why this is not therefore more credible than those pagan legends. Also, how could this Jesus legend evolve into a myth when the historical figure himself was not a famous or well-reputed celebrity of high status, as was the case for all other reputed miracle myth heroes, i.e., all the ones we can identify as real historical persons.

So there has been no shifting of the goalpost. You could not answer this question from the very beginning, and you still cannot answer it.


You made a statement and were demonstrated to be false on it. At least own up to that. Or are you going to argue somehow that when it comes to miracle workers people use better critical thinking skills than when it comes to these other scams I mentioned?

You and others have said this yourself. If someone says, "It's raining outside," you believe it, but if they say, "A flying saucer just landed," or "Zombies just rose out of their graves," etc., we don't believe it, or we demand evidence first. So yes, it's obvious that we are more skeptical when miracle or paranormal claims are made as opposed to claims about normal events.

A scam artist might lie to you about whether it's raining, or about whether a certain investment is risky. Scamming is not necessarily about miracle claims. But in the case of miracle claims, we are always MORE skeptical, and people do not believe it as easily. They might often choose to believe what they hope is true, including something miraculous, but in comparing a miracle claim with a NON-miracle claim, it is always the miracle claim that is more difficult to believe, all else being equal. And so when people do believe such a claim, we need to ask why they believe it, and we can determine what the reasons are.

And mythologizing happens easier if certain conditions are met -- such as a high celebrity status of the one making the miracle claim, including his long tradition or long career or longstanding reputation -- or especially if the miracle hero is a longstanding "god" or deity who has been worshiped for centuries. These and other factors explain how the target audience might be persuaded and choose to believe.

So yes, it is true that people are more skeptical, or more critical in their thinking, if the promoters make miracle claims to them, in contrast to NON-miracle claims.

And the more strange or weird the claim is, the less we believe it. It's in degrees that we become more skeptical. We are more skeptical about advertising claims that are too extreme or "too good to be true" than we are about the more moderate claims.

So it was not false to say that people are more skeptical when you make a miracle claim to them than if you make a claim about something normal.


And the Jesus myth was far from "instant." 40 years is not instant

Which is a shorter time period -- the time gap of 150 years between the reported Apollonius of Tyana miracles and the one source we have for this, or the time gap of 30 or 40 or 50 years between the reported Jesus miracles and the 4 (5) sources we have for these miracles?

Or the 1000+ years time gap between the reported Perseus miracles and the first written reports we have of these miracles?

Are you still having difficulty figuring out that several centuries is a longer time period than 30 or 40 or 50 years? Don't you understand that one century is 100 years? and that 100 years is much longer than 30 or 40 or 50 years? Why must you get hung up on the word "instant" -- don't you understand that the ancient history documents were typically much later than only 50 years after the events they reported? Are you having trouble registering this?

Haven't you yet figured out that it was not unusual for the later document reporting the event to be dated even 100 years later? that even "primary sources" were sometimes 100 years after the reported events, such as Tacitus who is a "primary source" for the life of Caesar Augustus?

This 30 or 40 or 50 years was a relatively SHORT SHORT time space from the date of the Jesus events to the first written reports about those events. Our information about Jesus is just as reliable as the sources for most of our historical record for that period. And by comparison to any other miracle hero legends, this time gap between the alleged events and the first reports of them is far less for the Jesus events. It's in this sense that he is the only "instant miracle myth."

Instead of pretending you don't understand this point, which is not really so difficult to grasp, why don't you get serious and give us an example of another such "instant miracle myth" from before 1500 AD. Or, since there isn't any example, why don't you give us a reason why it is that we have ONLY THIS ONE example of such an "instant miracle myth" and no others.

Not only does a position not become less wrong the more words you throw at it; but this kind of insanely long response is exactly why 'TL;DR' is a sensible response - a massive screed is a very strong indication that the writer has nothing useful to contribute.

I'm not going to waste my life reading all this crap.

You remain wrong, no matter how many keystrokes you make. Start making sound arguments, rather than long-winded ones, if you care whether people agree with you.

And if you don't care, don't make any arguments at all.
 
This 30 or 40 or 50 years was a relatively SHORT SHORT time space from the date of the Jesus events to the first written reports about those events.

It can be hard enough to separate fact from fiction for events that happened last week, or yesterday using all our modern day resources. Consider the conditions of the time of Jesus, superstition, a tradition of miracle workers and magicians, the expectation of a Messiah, poor rigour, low standard of evidence, little scepticism, willingness (even eagerness) to believe, and what degree of reliability can you reasonably expect? Given the conditions, I'd say, not much.
 
But "popular" just means that someone believed it, which is all we have for ANY historical events. We believe the reported events because someone believed it or claimed it was true and reported it. The more reports there are, the more certain we can be that the claims are true. I.e., the more "popular" the belief that it happened, the more credible is the claim that it happened.
This is just a prolix, but no less childish, version of 'I know you are but what am I' response to a charge of 'fallacy.'

Let's assume that's anywhere close to true, and not a gross misunderstanding of what makes a popularity argument. You reduce ALL OF HISTORY to a logical fallacy.
Where does that leave your argument for Jesus being real?


That does not make your favorite skybeast story any less of a fallacy, by making it one fallacy among millions. When we ask 'why would we believe this impossible shit is not a made-up story' the reply 'everything is possibly a made-up story' is not a useful response to 'why.'
 
Lumpenproletariat keeps asking us to explain things that have been explained dozens of times now. Either he is unwilling to accept the explanations because they aren't what he wants to believe or he's just not reading them.

Once again, by the numbers: We don't know all the inticracies of how the myth came into being as it is now, but we do have many clues that point to reasonable, rational explanations that do not require us to assume someone was able to defy gravitational attraction by literally walking on water and levitating off into the sky never to be seen again.

The Jesus myth came to be because of the following very common things:

  • People make up stories about miraculous events
  • People write things down, including fantastic and extraordinary things that never happened.
  • People believe all kinds of really incredible stories (hoaxes) for little other reason than they are presented in a way that makes them believable.
  • People often engage in fraud, sometimes doing so for reasons they consider morally upright ("liars for Jesus")
  • Mythology was rampant during the time in question. Thousands of myths were in circulation about fanciful creatures, men who were the products of gods impregnating women, incredible feats of magic, strength, healing, etc.
  • The Jewish culture (part of the mix here) was replete with a cavalcade of miracle-working prophets such as Moses, Gideon, Samuel, Elijah, Elisha, Daniel, Ezekiel, etc.
  • The Jewish culture also included a strong tradition of written mythology unlike the Greek culture, which resorted more to orally told stories and depictions on vases, paintings, statues, friezes, etc.

We could go on and on providing the very ordinary components that set the framework for the Jesus myth we see today. The myth clearly evolved according to all the information we have. The earliest mentionings of this myth only include references to a dying and rising god, a common meme in ancient religions that preceded it. The movement gained a small foothold in Rome at some point in the late 1st century C.E., and what remains after that is completely consistent with opportunistic propagation by people who stood to gain from its spread. There is nothing surprising about any of this.

The truth is Lumpenproletariat is committing a classic sharpshooter fallacy. If you shoot thousands of arrows indiscriminately into the air, sooner or later one of them is going to hit something important and achieve notice. The rest will go unnoticed and disappear into the fog of history. We know that thousands of small cults were being formed all the time. Some met with moderate success, some met with little or no success. We know that the same thing continues even today. The law of averages demands that sooner or later one will take off uncontrollably. This has happened several times in history. The Jesus myth is certainly a successful one. But it's not the only one.

Lumpenproletariat's walls of text require a lot of hand-waving to attempt to wow us with the tiny bulls-eye he keeps drawing around his favorite arrow. Most of us here know about all the other arrows and we're painfully aware that this particular arrow fell before the bulls-eye was drawn around it.
 
There's reason to believe most of the miracle stories were "made up," but not the Jesus miracle stories.

We've talked about some possible other cults. We have one document about the Apollonius of Tyana reputed miracles. And there's mention of the Simon Magus cult. Along with these, who must have been unusual characters in some way, there must have been hundreds more, mostly less important than these two, which also drew limited attention and were dismissed.

Ahhh, so another qualifier:

  • Must have become popular
You have now combined the logical fallacy of appeal to popularity with your already established sharpshooter fallacy. Multiplying fallacies doesn't increase the validity of the argument.

But "popular" just means that someone believed it, which is all we have for ANY historical events. We believe the reported events because someone believed it or claimed it was true and reported it. The more reports there are, the more certain we can be that the claims are true. I.e., the more "popular" the belief that it happened, the more likely it is that it did happen.

So once again, your complaint against the gospel accounts and reason to disqualify them are reasons which would also disqualify ALL our sources for history. The only reason some history reports are believed more than others is that they are more "popular" -- i.e., there are more reports for them and more indication that they were generally believed.

We believe Julius Caesar was assassinated because there were many who believed it and reported it, i.e., because this was popularly believed. If you throw out every report saying it happened and every claim that people believed it, we'd have no evidence that Caesar was assassinated. It's the POPULARITY of this belief that makes it more credible. If the report of the Caesar assassination was not popular or widely believed, then it would be less credible for us as part of the true historical record.

But "popular" just means that someone believed it, which is all we have for ANY historical events. We believe the reported events because someone believed it or claimed it was true and reported it. The more reports there are, the more certain we can be that the claims are true. I.e., the more "popular" the belief that it happened, the more credible is the claim that it happened.

This is just a prolix, but no less childish, version of 'I know you are but what am I' response to a charge of 'fallacy.'

Let's assume that's anywhere close to true, and not a gross misunderstanding of what makes a popularity argument. You reduce ALL OF HISTORY to a logical fallacy.

Where does that leave your argument for Jesus being real?

Jesus is a real historical person, for whom we have some facts, based on the gospel accounts, and this is credible for the same reason that virtually ALL our sources for historical events are credible.

For all these sources there are doubts, probabilities, maybe some "certainties" or extremely high probabilities, but also probably some errors, so that by relying on these sources we succeed in gaining a reasonably accurate record of the events, including a reasonably accurate record of the Jesus events. But not a perfect record, and there could even be some major errors. The element of error does not negate the overall credibility of the accounts generally.

The facts we gain from these sources are reliable because they are widely reported in differing documents, and are widely believed. So all we have is the "popularity" of these facts or these beliefs about what happened. If enough different sources vouch for the same facts, this makes those facts more credible. I.e., if they are "popular" enough, that gives us the assurance that they're probably accurate, or generally accurate. So it's not a "fallacy" to believe the reported facts based on the "popularity" of them in the various sources. It's this "popularity" of the reported facts which our historical record is based upon.



What about the APPEAL TO POPULARITY FALLACY?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Argumentum_ad_populum
In argumentation theory, an argumentum ad populum (Latin for "appeal to the people") is a fallacious argument that concludes that a proposition is true because many or most people believe it: "If many believe so, it is so."
This type of argument is known by several names, including appeal to the masses, appeal to belief, appeal to the majority, appeal to democracy, appeal to popularity, argument by consensus, consensus fallacy, authority of the many, and bandwagon fallacy (also known as a vox populi), and in Latin as argumentum ad numerum ("appeal to the number"), and consensus gentium ("agreement of the clans"). It is also the basis of a number of social phenomena, including communal reinforcement and the bandwagon effect. The Chinese proverb "three men make a tiger" concerns the same idea.

This isn't to reject the fallacy of truth by popularity principle. If a mob insists that an accused suspect is guilty, but there's strong evidence that he's innocent, of course that mob might be wrong. So, the "popularity" is not a guarantee of the truth. The majority can be wrong, so we have to consider evidence that contradicts what the majority believes.

If there's evidence that Jesus did not exist, or that he did no miracles, etc., it's possible that this evidence could overrule the reports saying that he did exist or that he did perform the miracle acts. So the "popular" belief we see in the 1st-century documents, attesting to the Jesus events, is subject to being challenged by any evidence indicating otherwise. So, what is that contrary evidence?

If there is no contrary evidence, then the "popular" reports or beliefs are all we have to rely on. In the case of historical events, what evidence is there other than the reports or documents from the period saying this did or did not happen?

In some rare cases there might be such evidence, but for historical events the written reports from the period are usually all the evidence there is. Archaeological findings can be brought to bear, but how many historical reports have been overruled by such findings? Usually those findings do not overrule anything in the written record.

Rather, modern science can overrule some of the theories held by the ancient natural philosophers. There are ways the ancient written accounts or theories are overruled on some matters. But hardly ever on a question such as whether a particular event really happened.

The "Star of Bethlehem" is rejected partly because of the unscientific nature of it, but also because there is ONLY ONE source for it. But the multiplying of the fish and loaves has more credibility, even if it's just as unscientific, because for this event we have 4 sources and not only one. Not that one has to believe it, but this latter miracle is more credible than the "Star of Bethlehem" miracle.

For historical events, the "popular" reports in the documents near the time the events happened are generally the best evidence. But all of it is just good guesswork, at best, and so this "popularity" of the general beliefs or the reports is always subject to review, and any of it could theoretically be debunked if better evidence turns up. So, when they find the evidence that Jesus did not do those acts, maybe you can make a case that those reports are unreliable. But so far there is no such evidence. All you have for now is just the dogmatic premise that miracle events can never happen -- period, exclamation point!!!!!

When you come up with something more than this dogmatic premise, you might be able to make a stronger case.


That does not make your favorite skybeast story any less of a fallacy, by making it one fallacy among millions.

But there's not "millions" of these fallacies in the history books. It's not a "fallacy" to believe the popular reports about Julius Caesar being assassinated, even though it's based only on the documents saying it happened. Since there is no evidence showing it did not happen, it's reasonable to believe the reports, i.e., to believe it based on the "popularity" of this story.

So, the written reports or the "popularity" of the belief in the event is our best indicator of what happened, because it's all the evidence we have. It's not a "fallacy" until there's some other kind of evidence -- stronger evidence -- to prove that it did not really happen. Once that evidence is produced, then those who believed the story because of its "popularity" have to reconsider and possibly change their belief. Because the scientific evidence might overrule the "popularity" or the preponderance of the written reports.

But for historical events there is hardly ever any strong evidence other than the written record which has come down to us.


When we ask 'why would we believe this impossible shit is not a made-up story' the reply 'everything is possibly a made-up story' is not a useful response to 'why.'

No, that's not the reply. The correct reply is that "made-up" stories fit a general pattern, and the Jesus miracle events, reported in the gospel accounts, do not fit that pattern.

All the miracle myth legends that were "made up" fit a pattern, which is that a popular well-known or distinguished hero figure, or celebrity of high status during his lifetime, made some impact on people such that he became widely admired or revered and became the object of story-telling, usually over many generations or centuries, and the stories became fabricated or "made up" during this long period. And in some rare cases the myth-making started happening while he was still alive, if he had a long career and achieved a recognized position of status in the society.

But in the case of the Jesus miracles we don't see this pattern which is the case in ALL the other miracle myth legends, which were "made up," and which explains how these myths or legends evolved and became widely believed even though they were fictional. This pattern of the attachment to a highly popular celebrity figure and usually the long period of time for the story-telling explains how the "made-up" element came about and took the shape of the popular myths or fictional accounts people began to believe.

But this is not what happened in the case of the miracle events we see in the gospel accounts, so there's no reason to believe this is a "made-up story" like all the other miracle legends were. This is the correct response to why we should not believe it's made-up, not that "everything is possibly a made-up story." Almost certainly it's not true that everything is a made-up story. Probably 99% of our standard history record is true and is not "made up." As probably 98% or 97% of the gospel account record is true. Or 96%.
 
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Lumpenproletariat, you keep making these statements as if they are established fact. They are not.

Jesus is a real historical person, for whom we have some facts, based on the gospel accounts, and this is credible for the same reason that virtually ALL our sources for historical events are credible.

Jesus may or may not have been an actual person. The truth is we don't have enough evidence to make that determination. What we can be sure of is that nobody famous or renowned fitting anything of that description lived during that time in the areas indicated in the stories we have about this character. If Jesus existed he must have been obscure and made little impact. This is in agreement with all archaeological evidence (none) as well as being consistent with your own argument:

All the miracle myth legends that were "made up" fit a pattern, which is that a popular well-known or distinguished hero figure, or celebrity of high status during his lifetime, made some impact on people such that he became widely admired or revered and became the object of story-telling...

So if he existed he wasn't at all famous. On that we agree.

But that brings us right back to the problem you've never addressed: Why, then, would all these stories originate in Rome, 1500 miles away and two generations removed? If the dude was famous enough that people living 1500 miles away and two generations removed had compelling reason to know that the fantastic tales about him were true then he was a famous person, busting your "he wasn't famous enough to get mythologized" argument (with which I do not agree anyway). But if he was an obscure individual nobody ever heard about (which would explain the fact that there is not one scrap of contemporary evidence about him) it leaves us with the undeniable conclusion that these people only believed these stories because someone convincing told them.

Further, you keep presenting GMark, GMatt, GLuke and GJohn as if they are somehow corroborative of each other. They are not. Had they all appeared simultaneously ... maybe. The fact that even the most conservative apologist admits that GMatt, GLuke and GJohn used GMark as source material lets us know that they constitute nothing more than rewrites of the original story. Not "additional" sources at all. You yourself admit that GMatt and GLuke's birth narratives are bullshit, so what we do know about these rewrites is that they start off lying to us. Fool me once shame on you. Fool me twice I must be a christian. Okay, that was a bit uncalled for and I apologize for the caustic way it sounds. But you are welcome to explain why we should believe the rest of GMatt and GLuke's fish story when they start off lying to us.

The only stories we have about Jesus are the adventures of Jesus the Magic Jew, a gravity-defying superman living a long time ago in a land far, far away. You cannot handwave away the principle that such extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. Rewrites of the same story do not qualify as evidence at all, let along extraordinary evidence. You have nothing. Just a bunch of cult followers believing a crazy story told to them by a charismatic cult leader.
 
The only stories we have about Jesus are the adventures of Jesus the Magic Jew, a gravity-defying superman living a long time ago in a land far, far away. You cannot handwave away the principle that such extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. Rewrites of the same story do not qualify as evidence at all, let along extraordinary evidence. You have nothing. Just a bunch of cult followers believing a crazy story told to them by a charismatic cult leader.
Christianity became popular for economic reasons, not because it was anymore believable than other religions and cults at the time. Religion is just as bound by economic constraints as any other facet of life. Therefore the simplest religions have an advantage, all other things being equal, and Christianity was and is certainly simple.

The other religions with all their multiple gods that needed pleased and venerated took lots of time and resources. The amount of time and the complexity that was classical religion is easily overlooked, but should not be. Christianity is the lazy mans faith. And the bonus is that no matter how much of a crook and weasel you are, you are forgiven and are still favored by your god. Pretty easy shit, carte blanche religion. Where do I sign?
 
And the bonus is that no matter how much of a crook and weasel you are, you are forgiven and are still favored by your god.

Not if you commit the sin against the Holy Spirit.


Mark 3:28-30: "Truly I tell you, all sins and blasphemes will be forgiven for the sons of men. But whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will never be forgiven, but is guilty of an eternal sin."

So slag off Jesus and God all you want, but leave that Holy Spirit alone. He's a mean motherfucker.

Oops...
 
Say what again!

And the bonus is that no matter how much of a crook and weasel you are, you are forgiven and are still favored by your god.

Not if you commit the sin against the Holy Spirit.


Mark 3:28-30: "Truly I tell you, all sins and blasphemes will be forgiven for the sons of men. But whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will never be forgiven, but is guilty of an eternal sin."

So slag off Jesus and God all you want, but leave that Holy Spirit alone. He's a mean motherfucker.

Oops...
Now you got me thinking of Samuel L Jackson, he could play the Holy Spirit well ;)

Another cool verse: Ezekiel 25:17. "The path of the righteous man is beset on all sides by the inequities of the selfish and the tyranny of evil men. Blessed is he who, in the name of charity and good will, shepherds the weak through the valley of the darkness, for he is truly his brother's keeper and the finder of lost children. And I will strike down upon thee with great vengeance and furious anger those who attempt to poison and destroy My brothers. And you will know I am the Lord when I lay My vengeance upon you."
 
Not if you commit the sin against the Holy Spirit.
We've had threads about this on the old IIDB. Basically, the conclusion was that no one really knows what does 'blaspheming the Holy Spirit' mean. Some more liberal Christians insisted this means that there's really no possibility to commit this kind of sin. No one liked my proposal that this could also mean that anything we do at all can amount to blaspheming the HS because e.g. how does one know opening a banana on the wrong end is not a case of blasphemy of this kind?
 
Matthew and Luke are legitimate sources for the Jesus miracle events, in addition to Mark.

All the miracle myth legends that were "made up" fit a pattern, which is that a popular well-known or distinguished hero figure, or celebrity of high status during his lifetime, made some impact on people such that he became widely admired or revered and became the object of story-telling...

So if he existed he wasn't at all famous. On that we agree.

In 30 AD, or to the end of his life, he was not famous, or rather, not anywhere beyond the limited region of Galilee, Syria, Judea, Samaria.

However, he became famous very quickly in the following 10-20-30 years. Which you have not explained. Mythic heroes, such as he became, were always famous persons of wide recognition during their lives, not someone obscure. I.e., while still alive they were famous.


But that brings us right back to the problem you've never addressed: Why, then, would all these stories originate in Rome, 1500 miles away and two generations removed?

They did NOT originate in Rome. You need to stop falling back on this premise. We don't know where the Gospel of Mark was written/compiled. But even if it was compiled by an editor in Rome, the pieces of it did not originate in Rome.


If the dude was famous enough that people living 1500 miles away and two generations removed had compelling reason to know that the fantastic tales about him were true, . . .

Not in 30 AD. His reputation was probably limited geographically at that time, but spread quickly in the 30s and 40s, so that by the time Mark was first compiled his "legend" was known in Rome and other distant areas.


. . . then he was a famous person, busting your "he wasn't famous enough to get mythologized" argument . . .

Not in 30 AD. The pattern is that the mythic hero always originated from a person who was a widely-known celebrity during his life. Whereas Jesus did not become widely-known until several years after his life. This is what you are having trouble explaining, or rather, what you are unable to explain and so keep refusing to address.


But if he was an obscure individual nobody ever heard about . . .

In 30 AD, yes. Although, if he did perform those miracle acts, he was probably a local celebrity of sorts, having a reputation limited to the immediate region only, and thus Mark 1:28, "His fame spread everywhere throughout the whole region of Galilee." This clearly fits with the possibility that he performed such acts. But this lasted probably less than 3 years so that the knowledge of him at that time stayed within that limited region.


. . . (which would explain the fact that there is not one scrap of contemporary evidence about him) . . .

No, this is explained by the fact that there is virtually no one of that period for whom we have such evidence. "Contemporary evidence" -- evidence from the time of the historical figure -- does not exist for virtually ANY historical figure (that long ago). The rare exceptions were a few very powerful political figures like kings or emperors. And even for these there's very little such evidence. Virtually all the evidence for anyone comes from several decades/generations later, not "contemporary" with the events.

. . . it leaves us with the undeniable conclusion that these people only believed these stories because someone convincing told them.

Maybe, but these ones were "convincing" only because the stories were true. Obviously most of those circulating the Jesus stories in the 50s or 60s where not direct witnesses, but received them from others. But the reason they were believed is that these reports were credible, unlike other miracle stories generally which were not credible and were dismissed and forgotten. But in this case there were more of such reports coming from different sources, so that the reports could not be so easily dismissed as in the case of all the other miracle stories floating around.

Those other miracle stories surely did exist, probably hundreds or thousands of them, connected to dozens of would-be miracle cults, and yet virtually all are totally forgotten, or a tiny few left some small trace in the record, maybe 100+ years later, like the Simon Magus stories, which were not credible and hardly taken seriously.


Further, you keep presenting GMark, GMatt, GLuke and GJohn as if they are somehow corroborative of each other. They are not. Had they all appeared simultaneously ... maybe.

It's quite possible that Matthew and Luke were simultaneous, and/or that Luke and John were simultaneous. Surely parts of these were simultaneous even if the final redacted 4 accounts appeared somewhat apart chronologically. There is much in each account which is not dependent on any of the others. That Mt and Lk quote from Mk in no way undermines these as reliable sources. They each have additional elements not from Mk.


The fact that even the most conservative apologist admits that GMatt, GLuke and GJohn used GMark as source material lets us know that they constitute nothing more than rewrites of the original story.

No, they are not any such thing. Mt and Lk (not Jn) use Mark but also use other sources.

H. G. Wells (Outline of History) quotes extensively from E. Gibbon's Decline and Fall, but his Roman history chapters are not therefore a "rewrite" of Gibbon.

The extra Mt and Lk accounts are perfectly legitimate extra sources on the same events of about 30 AD as the Mk account. And it's perfectly legitimate that they used Mk as a source.


Not "additional" sources at all.

You're giving no reason why they are not additional sources. Just because they quote from Mk does not change the legitimacy of the part which they added independent of Mk. From Q and other sources. They added further pieces to the story which originated separate from Mk.

The apocryphal gospels are also separate sources. Less reliable, but they are separate, and may have some credibility. And others who quoted from the gospels are also separate sources. You need to get over this crackpot notion that a later writer who quotes from an earlier source is not a further source in addition to that earlier source.


You yourself admit that GMatt and GLuke's birth narratives are bullshit, so what we do know about these rewrites is that they start off lying to us.

No, those birth narratives were from their sources, and maybe they believed those accounts. Even if some of their sources had a fictional element, this does not mean that the writer using it is lying. It's true someone somewhere probably fabricated this or that. But even if some fictional elements are added from somewhere, that does not negate the general credibility of the whole account. It just means each part has to be judged critically, and some details are probably inaccurate.


But you are welcome to explain why we should believe the rest of GMatt and GLuke's fish story when they start off lying to us.

Again, the final editors were not lying. They believed their sources, perhaps should have been more critical. But we understand that their purpose was not simply reporting the dry facts, but also promoting a narrative. A fictional element exists along with the factual element. Just like historical fiction contains both fact and fiction. The factual part still has value despite the fictional element. We have to be grown-up and try to distinguish these, like we distinguish a fictional element in Plato's depiction of Socrates.

It's good to seek a meaning or significance from the fictional element, when it serves to make a point of some kind, while also distinguishing the fact from the fiction and using the credible elements to reconstruct what the facts were.


You cannot handwave away the principle that such extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.

This is just a slogan. What we require for the miracle stories is multiple sources, which we have for the Jesus miracle events.


Rewrites of the same story do not qualify as evidence at all, let alone extraordinary evidence.

Mt and Lk are extra sources, not "rewrites" of Mk. These sources are actually made MORE credible by having used Mark as a source for their own accounts. They believed the Jesus miracle reports independently of Mark. They used Q which contains 2 miracle reports. They used Mark to strengthen their belief in these miracle claims. Those claims are separate from the Mark account. The Paul epistles add to the credibility of the resurrection event and are prior to Mark. This miracle element obviously did not originate from Mark.


You have nothing. Just a bunch of cult followers believing a crazy story told to them by a charismatic cult leader.

No, there has to be more to it, because there were easily dozens of such cults and charismatics familiar to Mt and Lk, and yet ONLY THIS ONE miracle cult figure was credible to them. They must have had some reason to believe in this one miracle myth ONLY and not in any of the others.
 
They did NOT originate in Rome. You need to stop falling back on this premise. We don't know where the Gospel of Mark was written/compiled. But even if it was compiled by an editor in Rome, the pieces of it did not originate in Rome.
You don't know where it originated, but you DO know where it did NOT originate.

How?

IF the first place it was written down was in Rome, what evidence would you present in order to exclude Rome as the origin?

You say Atheos NEEDS to stop this. Well, not until some actual evidence is provided, no, he does not.

Got any?
 


And even if he did, could you trust anything you read originating from the Church of Rome?


It is rightly said that history is written by the victors, and that is the case with the Church of Rome. How they did it is one of the great untold stories of all time, and few people today know how freely it is acknowledged in Church circles that popular Catholic versions of the history of Christianity are composed entirely of forgeries.
http://www.vatileaks.com/announcements/fake-catholic-literature-part-1

In pursuance of the cover-up of Christian origins, Vatican hierarchs have demonstrated a record of centuries of unparalleled corruption and criminality, and to hide this fact, the Holy See relentlessly provided itself with a series of concocted books about its past
http://www.vatileaks.com/vati-leaks/fake-catholic-literature-part-2
 
^^^
Now that is interesting. It is obvious that most church history is fake but I had attributed it to unfounded faith and ignorance. I hadn't considered that it could be similar to the result that would come by combining the talents of people like Joseph Goebbels and the writers at the Onion (pure intentional propaganda and satire).

Maybe I put too much faith in the generally sage advice, "Never attribute to malice that which is adequately explained by ignorance or stupidity."
 
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