Kylie
Member
I disagree with your claim that, "if the present and future are as set in stone as the past, this fact does not vitiate free will."What does the past have to do with it? Tonight I will choose what to have for dinner. At this moment, there is no way to predict that in advance. Once I make the decision and prepare that food and eat it, it becomes set in stone. That does not change the fact that I made the choice freely. There were many options, and each of which had a non-zero probability until I decided on one particular option. That decision changed the probability of that option to 100% and all the others to 0%. I had free will to choose BEFORE I made the decision. The fact that I can't change my mind AFTER the fact is irrelevant. Yet for some reason you seem to think that since I can't change my mind AFTER the fact, I shouldn't be able to change it BEFORE the fact either.Kylie, I don’t think you ever responded to my post 227. Let’s start with this “set in stone” business. Most of us would agree that the past is set in stone. We can’t alter it, we can’t change it. So what? Does that mean we lack free will? To say that yesterday, because I ordered chicken for dinner, I had to do so, is a non sequitur. Similarly, if the present and future are as set in stone as the past, this fact does not vitiate free will. To suppose that we have to be able to change or alter the past, present or future in order to have free will, is a mistake. In fact, we never even alter or change the present. To do so would violate the Law of Non-Contradiction — it would mean that I have the power to both order, and not order, chicken at the same time. Free will is not about changing the past, present or future. It is about helping to make the past be what it was, the present be what it is, and the future be, what it will be. We very easily do this every waking hour of our lives. Your probability calculations are mistaken. Your are confusing posterior probability with prior probability. The probability of my ordering chicken, if I order chicken, is 100 percent after the fact, not before. You repeatedly commit the modal fallacy when you argue that because I WILL do x, it follows I MUST do x. Again, I discussed this in some detail in post 227. As a matter of logic, your are incorrect when you claim that because I WILL do x, it follows that I CANNOT do y. To say that I “will” do x, presupposes that I “can” do it. The converse, however, is not true: to say that I WILL do x, never implies that I CANNOT do y. It is within my power to do either x or y, as entering a restaurant and watching people choose what to have for dinner clearly demonstrates. For the compatibilist, “could have done otherwise” simply means “would have done otherwise, if …” If what? If antecedent circumstances had been different. Again, see post 227What does the past have to do with it? Tonight I will choose what to have for dinner. At this moment, there is no way to predict that in advance. Once I make the decision and prepare that food and eat it, it becomes set in stone. That does not change the fact that I made the choice freely. There were many options, and each of which had a non-zero probability until I decided on one particular option. That decision changed the probability of that option to 100% and all the others to 0%. I had free will to choose BEFORE I made the decision. The fact that I can't change my mind AFTER the fact is irrelevant. Yet for some reason you seem to think that since I can't change my mind AFTER the fact, I shouldn't be able to change it BEFORE the fact either.Kylie, I don’t think you ever responded to my post 227. Let’s start with this “set in stone” business. Most of us would agree that the past is set in stone. We can’t alter it, we can’t change it. So what? Does that mean we lack free will? To say that yesterday, because I ordered chicken for dinner, I had to do so, is a non sequitur. Similarly, if the present and future are as set in stone as the past, this fact does not vitiate free will. To suppose that we have to be able to change or alter the past, present or future in order to have free will, is a mistake. In fact, we never even alter or change the present. To do so would violate the Law of Non-Contradiction — it would mean that I have the power to both order, and not order, chicken at the same time. Free will is not about changing the past, present or future. It is about helping to make the past be what it was, the present be what it is, and the future be, what it will be. We very easily do this every waking hour of our lives. Your probability calculations are mistaken. Your are confusing posterior probability with prior probability. The probability of my ordering chicken, if I order chicken, is 100 percent after the fact, not before. You repeatedly commit the modal fallacy when you argue that because I WILL do x, it follows I MUST do x. Again, I discussed this in some detail in post 227. As a matter of logic, your are incorrect when you claim that because I WILL do x, it follows that I CANNOT do y. To say that I “will” do x, presupposes that I “can” do it. The converse, however, is not true: to say that I WILL do x, never implies that I CANNOT do y. It is within my power to do either x or y, as entering a restaurant and watching people choose what to have for dinner clearly demonstrates. For the compatibilist, “could have done otherwise” simply means “would have done otherwise, if …” If what? If antecedent circumstances had been different. Again, see post 227What does the past have to do with it? Tonight I will choose what to have for dinner. At this moment, there is no way to predict that in advance. Once I make the decision and prepare that food and eat it, it becomes set in stone. That does not change the fact that I made the choice freely. There were many options, and each of which had a non-zero probability until I decided on one particular option. That decision changed the probability of that option to 100% and all the others to 0%. I had free will to choose BEFORE I made the decision. The fact that I can't change my mind AFTER the fact is irrelevant. Yet for some reason you seem to think that since I can't change my mind AFTER the fact, I shouldn't be able to change it BEFORE the fact either.Kylie, I don’t think you ever responded to my post 227. Let’s start with this “set in stone” business. Most of us would agree that the past is set in stone. We can’t alter it, we can’t change it. So what? Does that mean we lack free will? To say that yesterday, because I ordered chicken for dinner, I had to do so, is a non sequitur. Similarly, if the present and future are as set in stone as the past, this fact does not vitiate free will. To suppose that we have to be able to change or alter the past, present or future in order to have free will, is a mistake. In fact, we never even alter or change the present. To do so would violate the Law of Non-Contradiction — it would mean that I have the power to both order, and not order, chicken at the same time. Free will is not about changing the past, present or future. It is about helping to make the past be what it was, the present be what it is, and the future be, what it will be. We very easily do this every waking hour of our lives. Your probability calculations are mistaken. Your are confusing posterior probability with prior probability. The probability of my ordering chicken, if I order chicken, is 100 percent after the fact, not before. You repeatedly commit the modal fallacy when you argue that because I WILL do x, it follows I MUST do x. Again, I discussed this in some detail in post 227. As a matter of logic, your are incorrect when you claim that because I WILL do x, it follows that I CANNOT do y. To say that I “will” do x, presupposes that I “can” do it. The converse, however, is not true: to say that I WILL do x, never implies that I CANNOT do y. It is within my power to do either x or y, as entering a restaurant and watching people choose what to have for dinner clearly demonstrates. For the compatibilist, “could have done otherwise” simply means “would have done otherwise, if …” If what? If antecedent circumstances had been different. Again, see post 227What does the past have to do with it? Tonight I will choose what to have for dinner. At this moment, there is no way to predict that in advance. Once I make the decision and prepare that food and eat it, it becomes set in stone. That does not change the fact that I made the choice freely. There were many options, and each of which had a non-zero probability until I decided on one particular option. That decision changed the probability of that option to 100% and all the others to 0%. I had free will to choose BEFORE I made the decision. The fact that I can't change my mind AFTER the fact is irrelevant. Yet for some reason you seem to think that since I can't change my mind AFTER the fact, I shouldn't be able to change it BEFORE the fact either.Kylie, I don’t think you ever responded to my post 227. Let’s start with this “set in stone” business. Most of us would agree that the past is set in stone. We can’t alter it, we can’t change it. So what? Does that mean we lack free will? To say that yesterday, because I ordered chicken for dinner, I had to do so, is a non sequitur. Similarly, if the present and future are as set in stone as the past, this fact does not vitiate free will. To suppose that we have to be able to change or alter the past, present or future in order to have free will, is a mistake. In fact, we never even alter or change the present. To do so would violate the Law of Non-Contradiction — it would mean that I have the power to both order, and not order, chicken at the same time. Free will is not about changing the past, present or future. It is about helping to make the past be what it was, the present be what it is, and the future be, what it will be. We very easily do this every waking hour of our lives. Your probability calculations are mistaken. Your are confusing posterior probability with prior probability. The probability of my ordering chicken, if I order chicken, is 100 percent after the fact, not before. You repeatedly commit the modal fallacy when you argue that because I WILL do x, it follows I MUST do x. Again, I discussed this in some detail in post 227. As a matter of logic, your are incorrect when you claim that because I WILL do x, it follows that I CANNOT do y. To say that I “will” do x, presupposes that I “can” do it. The converse, however, is not true: to say that I WILL do x, never implies that I CANNOT do y. It is within my power to do either x or y, as entering a restaurant and watching people choose what to have for dinner clearly demonstrates. For the compatibilist, “could have done otherwise” simply means “would have done otherwise, if …” If what? If antecedent circumstances had been different. Again, see post 227
I am mystified by your reply. You seem to be AGREEING with me.
I am mystified by your reply. You seem to be AGREEING with me, while ostensibly REBUTTING me. You also, in this response to me, seem to contradict everything you have argued up until now. I am genuinely puzzled. You write: “That does not change the fact that I made the choice freely.” YES! I AGREE! So … I don’t get it. Are you arguing for free will, or against it?What does the past have to do with it?
Kylie, I don’t think you ever responded to my post 227.
Let’s start with this “set in stone” business. Most of us would agree that the past is set in stone. We can’t alter it, we can’t change it.
So what? Does that mean we lack free will? To say that yesterday, because I ordered chicken for dinner, I had to do so, is a non sequitur.
Similarly, if the present and future are as set in stone as the past, this fact does not vitiate free will. To suppose that we have to be able to change or alter the past, present or future in order to have free will, is a mistake. In fact, we never even alter or change the present. To do so would violate the Law of Non-Contradiction — it would mean that I have the power to both order, and not order, chicken at the same time.
Free will is not about changing the past, present or future. It is about helping to make the past be what it was, the present be what it is, and the future be, what it will be. We very easily do this every waking hour of our lives.
Your probability calculations are mistaken. Your are confusing posterior probability with prior probability. The probability of my ordering chicken, if I order chicken, is 100 percent after the fact, not before.
You repeatedly commit the modal fallacy when you argue that because I WILL do x, it follows I MUST do x. Again, I discussed this in some detail in post 227.
As a matter of logic, your are incorrect when you claim that because I WILL do x, it follows that I CANNOT do y. To say that I “will” do x, presupposes that I “can” do it. The converse, however, is not true: to say that I WILL do x, never implies that I CANNOT do y.
It is within my power to do either x or y, as entering a restaurant and watching people choose what to have for dinner clearly demonstrates. For the compatibilist, “could have done otherwise” simply means “would have done otherwise, if …” If what?
If antecedent circumstances had been different.
Again, see post 227
Tonight I will choose what to have for dinner. At this moment, there is no way to predict that in advance. Once I make the decision and prepare that food and eat it, it becomes set in stone. That does not change the fact that I made the choice freely. There were many options, and each of which had a non-zero probability until I decided on one particular option. That decision changed the probability of that option to 100% and all the others to 0%. I had free will to choose BEFORE I made the decision. The fact that I can't change my mind AFTER the fact is irrelevant.
Yet for some reason you seem to think that since I can't change my mind AFTER the fact, I shouldn't be able to change it BEFORE the fact either.
My position is and always has been that if the present and future are set in stone just like the past is, then we can not have any free will.