The case of Kennedy v. Bremerton School District represents an instance of a citizen versus government dispute. Given that the First Amendment primarily serves to protect citizens from government interference, this case aligns logically with that constitutional provision. However, it's important to note that the First Amendment does not extend to provide protections for citizens against other citizens.
Kindly spare me the need to rephrase the same point in countless variations.
Upheld to protect them from the government.
Ok let me clarify, all of the cases mentioned in your link involves a Citizens Vs Government dispute. Do you get it now?
... Its purpose was to end discrimination in public accommodation. ... Somebody else's mouth is not a place of public accommodation, and I don't see any evidence that the Congress that passed the Civil Rights Act intended to make it one.
The First Amendment stands as a safeguard for the citizens,
not against each other, but against potential
governmental overreach. It ensures that our freedom of expression remains unfettered
by the government, even when such expression might be perceived as offensive or inflammatory.
Contrastingly, the Civil Rights Act operates as a bulwark against discrimination in a wide array of social and economic realms. Conceived with the aspiration to eradicate bias-based conduct, it expressly forbids discrimination rooted in race, religion, sexual orientation, or national origin. The notion that some individuals perceive themselves as unprotected is indeed puzzling. Regardless of one's origin—even if hypothetically hailing from the farthest reaches of the cosmos, whimsically referred to as 'planet numskull'—every individual is shielded from discrimination predicated on race, religion, sexual orientation, or national origin.
TLDR :
1st Amendment protects the people from the government
Civil Rights act was crafted with the aim of eliminating prejudiced practices
Hey Florida Man, you appear to be giving free rein to your inner Texas Man.
A lifetime ago, in a state far, far away, when the Constitution still stood as a safeguard for the citizens so Roe v Wade was still the law of the land, this made a bunch of Republican state legislators sad. They felt really strongly that women should not get abortions, and that fellow citizens should not help women get abortions, and that Republican state legislators were entitled to stop them, because all of your uteri belong to us now or some equivalently dumb-ass mansplainy reason, so they really, really wanted a way around that pesky Constitution thing. Well, long story short, they invented one. They passed a law authorizing citizens
to sue one another for getting or aiding and abetting abortions. That way, according to some clever, clever Texas Man,
the government would not be involved. The Constitution only prohibits
government from stopping abortions. If
private citizens want to stop abortions, that's none of the Constitution's beeswax. Thus spake Texas Man.
So, Florida Man, do you agree with Texas Man's reasoning? When Texas ex-husband John Doe files a lawsuit
with a Texas court and serves a
court writ on former-friend Jenny Roe, for driving ex-wife Jane Doe to an abortion clinic in Indiana where she terminated
his god-given embryo, said court writ ordering Jenny to pay John $10,000 or else present herself in
a Texas courtroom and explain why she shouldn't have to pay John
to a Texas judge, wherein said courtroom if she fails to persuade said Texas judge then he will order her assets to be seized and turned over to John
by a Texas Sheriff's Deputy, do you agree with Texas Man that
the government of Texas is not involved?
What Texas was doing to pregnant women and their supporters before Roe was overturned was government action from top to bottom. The theory that it was just private citizen on private citizen was a
legal fiction. Likewise, when a would-be customer sics the Colorado Civil Rights Division on a business-owner and gets them to pull her license, which is to say, gets them to threaten her with prosecution for selling her services, or he sics a Colorado court on her and gets a judgment against her, which is to say, gets them to confiscate her property, that is government action from top to bottom.
Are there any other Constitutional rights besides free speech you think the government should be able to contract around by using private citizens as make-believe intermediaries in government courts? In a criminal prosecution, when a defendant exercises her Fifth Amendment right to remain silent, do you think the judge should award the alleged crime victim $10,000 when he sues the defendant for refusing to incriminate herself, and we should all make believe that the $10,000 was seized by the victim and not by the judge?