Axulus
Veteran Member
Then there would be evidence that companies that have to hire (primarily) more expensive labor (professionals, college educated workers, etc.) would have lower profit margins. Is there any evidence of this whatsoever?
Then there would be evidence that companies that have to hire (primarily) more expensive labor (professionals, college educated workers, etc.) would have lower profit margins.
Then there would be evidence that companies that have to hire (primarily) more expensive labor (professionals, college educated workers, etc.) would have lower profit margins. Is there any evidence of this whatsoever?
Then there would be evidence that companies that have to hire (primarily) more expensive labor (professionals, college educated workers, etc.) would have lower profit margins. Is there any evidence of this whatsoever?
Oh come on.
Surely even you can see that you have used two completely different meanings of 'more expensive' here.
If a company 'has to' hire professionals, then those that hire more expensive professionals will have lower profit margins than those that hire less expensive professionals, with equal abilities.
A less qualified employee may be less expensive as well as less able, but it isn't his wage rate that is the only important difference, is it?
I take it all companies are in the exact same business in this universe?
Um, I think the claim is that, ceteris paribus, lower wages will increase profits, and that seems to be a straightforward implication.I take it all companies are in the exact same business in this universe?
I'm asking for evidence, using whatever apples to apples criteria you want to use, that lower wages leads to higher profit margins. Do companies in the south with their lower wages have higher profit margins than companies in the north east with their comparatively higher wages, in the same industry? Evidence please.
Um, I think the claim is that, ceteris paribus, lower wages will increase profits, and that seems to be a straightforward implication.I'm asking for evidence, using whatever apples to apples criteria you want to use, that lower wages leads to higher profit margins. Do companies in the south with their lower wages have higher profit margins than companies in the north east with their comparatively higher wages, in the same industry? Evidence please.
The problem is, you haven't really cited any liberal sources, so I don't really have any idea what you are talking about.
The majority (66 percent) of low-wage workers are not employed by small businesses, but rather by large corporations with over 100 employees;
The 50 largest employers of low-wage workers have largely recovered from the recession and most are in strong financial positions: 92 percent were profitable last year; 78 percent have been profitable for the last three years; 75 percent have higher revenues now than before the recession; 73 percent have higher cash holdings; and 63 percent have higher operating margins (a measure of profitability).
Top executive compensation averaged $9.4 million last year at these firms, and they have returned $174.8 billion to shareholders in dividends or share buybacks over the past five years.
The central finding of this report is that the majority of America’s lowest-paid workers are employed by large corporations, not small businesses, and that most of the largest low-wage employers have recovered from the recession and are in a strong financial position.
The majority (66 percent) of low-wage workers are not employed by small businesses, but rather by large corporations with over 100 employees;
The 50 largest employers of low-wage workers have largely recovered from the recession and most are in strong financial positions: 92 percent were profitable last year; 78 percent have been profitable for the last three years; 75 percent have higher revenues now than before the recession; 73 percent have higher cash holdings; and 63 percent have higher operating margins (a measure of profitability).
Top executive compensation averaged $9.4 million last year at these firms, and they have returned $174.8 billion to shareholders in dividends or share buybacks over the past five years.
I just did.Oh come on.
Surely even you can see that you have used two completely different meanings of 'more expensive' here.
If a company 'has to' hire professionals, then those that hire more expensive professionals will have lower profit margins than those that hire less expensive professionals, with equal abilities.
A less qualified employee may be less expensive as well as less able, but it isn't his wage rate that is the only important difference, is it?
No, you need to explain it to me.
If you say so. Unless that is the ONLY thing that has changed in the last 50 years, that is a meaningless factoid though.The real wage rates of high end, experienced professionals, such as engineers, has sky rocketed over the last 50 years.
I don't see any reason to imagine so.Are the companies that hire them bleeding profits? Was 50 or 60 years ago the golden era for profits for companies that hired such engineers?
Additionally, if abilities matter, then what are the abilities of a low-skilled/unskilled laborer? At what point does the wage exceed their abilities?
I don't know. Like I said, I am not familiar with this platitude in particular, at least not in the form you are describing it. I was just trying to give a generous explanation for what these hypothetical liberals are saying (since again, I'm not quite sure of what you are talking about).Um, I think the claim is that, ceteris paribus, lower wages will increase profits, and that seems to be a straightforward implication.
The problem is, you haven't really cited any liberal sources, so I don't really have any idea what you are talking about.
I'm citing the common liberal platitudes expressed constantly on this board.
Also, why would anyone assume ceteris paribus (which would mean prices of products don't change when underlying costs change) in a dynamic and competitive economy?
Of course, it is also callous and unfair to structure the economy to provide higher profits for the wealthy, rather than providing higher wages for the poor, and reasonably paid work for all who are able to do it.
Of course, it is also callous and unfair to structure the economy to provide higher profits for the wealthy, rather than providing higher wages for the poor, and reasonably paid work for all who are able to do it.
This is what I am asking you to demonstrate. Please show any evidence whatsoever that the profits of the wealthy will be impacted (with more than a temporary blip) when "higher wages for the poor" are provided. This is really a statement that profit margins will permanently decline when wages increase (as opposed to what economic theory predicts - profits will decline temporarily but revert back to the mean as adjustments are made to the new cost reality). This is the liberal myth I am challenging when I started this thread.
Then there would be evidence that companies that have to hire (primarily) more expensive labor (professionals, college educated workers, etc.) would have lower profit margins. Is there any evidence of this whatsoever?
Great, then I can cherry pick my data and extrapolate it to fit the entire market. This is going to be such a useful discussion. Let's look at tachonite production.I take it all companies are in the exact same business in this universe?
I'm asking for evidence, using whatever apples to apples criteria you want to use, that lower wages leads to higher profit margins.
Very good. Because access to markets, supply chains and brand recognition play no role in profitability.Do companies in the south with their lower wages have higher profit margins than companies in the north east with their comparatively higher wages, in the same industry?....Are Chinese companies raking in the dough with their much cheaper labor, and thus have much higher profit margins than US companies? Evidence please.
Are you asking is there any evidence that firms in the same industry with a higher share of more expensive labor than firms in the industry with a lower share have lower profit margins?Then there would be evidence that companies that have to hire (primarily) more expensive labor (professionals, college educated workers, etc.) would have lower profit margins. Is there any evidence of this whatsoever?