I going to split this up. It is getting too long.
There really are only two choices--command or free market. You admit command doesn't work yet you don't want free market--which means you want command.
How absolutionist of you. Tell me, which do we have now, an absolute free market or an absolute command market?
I would say that we have something in between, but I am not an absolutionist like you.
No. Prices are controlled by supply and demand. It's just that if there is excess profit then competitors will show up (unless they are prohibited)--the supply rises, the price drops. This continues until the supply & demand price is the cost plus price.
Illustrates the problem quite well. If there is excess profits competitors will show up if and only they can justify the investment to get into the business. And if they are stupid enough to not realize that the people who are already in the business making excess profits will be the ones to best be able to survive the price drop that will occur when they increase the supply. The fantasy economics requires that the costs of entering a business is low, something that is true for very few businesses in the real economy.
The cost of entry only effects how long it takes competitors to show up. They still show up.
You believe that the more it cost to enter a market the longer it will take competitors to enter the market but they will enter it? This raises a large number of questions.
If it takes long enough, say a decade or more what are the chances that economic conditions have changed? Even if it only takes years is there a chance that economic conditions will have changed? An excess profit might have been turned into a loss.
For the duration of the time that it takes competitors to enter the market obviously the market will be dominated by administered pricing, not prices set by supply and demand, correct?
So on average the industries that cost the most to by in are the ones where there will be the greatest amount of administered pricing and the least amount of pricing set by supply and demand, correct?
So, next question is simple, over the last two hundred years have the economies of the world demonstrated a tendency to more capital required to get into a business or less investment required to get into a business?
I believe that it now costs a lot more to get into a particular business than it use to, meaning that by your logic, fewer and fewer prices are now set by supply and demand.
Furthermore, since you claim most of the market is set on cost plus I don't see what you're objecting to. Cost plus is as low as it can go. What do you want, business to operate at a loss???
No, supply and demand setting prices can force prices quite a bit below cost, forcing sales at a loss. In fact, the entire theory of the free market setting prices by supply and demand requires it. This is one of the more absurd ideas that one must adopt in order to accept the free market setting prices by supply and demand.
It is a sign of your confusion that you are now assuming my arguments against pricing being set by supply and demand. It is not me who is demanding that businesses manufacture product and to sell it at a loss. It is you, whether you realize it or not, which apparently you don't. Join me below the next quote and I will try, once again, to explain.
And this statement confirms the level of confusion that you have.
Since this has already happened to most goods you see them at cost plus.
No, we see most prices at cost plus because that is how they are set. Supply and demand setting prices specifically excludes cost plus pricing and severely limits profits. The fantasy economics tells us that supply and demand should drive prices down to the marginal cost of production of the last item that the factory can produce. How many factories do you know where they are working night and day to produce products that they are going to sell for no profit? Do you run your business like this? Do you know anyone who runs their business like this?
Cost plus acts as a floor through which supply and demand can't drive prices for any sustained period of time--when the market price is cost plus nobody is going to invest in more production. (Which can have some very nasty effects when the price is artificially held to cost plus--witness the repeated drug shortages of things that are mostly bought by the government.)
Once again, you are injecting the element of time, which neoclassical economics doesn't consider in its theoretical support of the free market setting prices by supply and demand. This means that there is hope for you.
As you learned above it is one of arguments against the theory of the free market setting prices by supply and demand. If it takes long enough for supply and demand to take control of prices it is vitally the same as if they never take hold at all. Because over time business conditions will change to cancel out the excess profit. More importantly businesses who might enter a profitable business will realize this and will be less likely to enter the new business if the time that it takes is too long or the investment too great to take the risk. Especially since they are allowed to read these blogs and you kind of spilled the beans already that the net result of more supply is lower prices increasing the risk.
We didn't even talk about the flip side of the coin, the theory of price setting by supply and demand requires not just a low cost of entry into a business but also a low cost of exit from a business, that is the ability to recover the initial investment pretty much intact if profits drop into losses. Does that describe the current situation to you?
Once again you have edited out some of my brilliant, but apparently, elusive prose. This time it was concerning the diminishing returns of marginal productivity.
I accept that it is me who is advancing the heterodox position, the challenge to the prevailing orthodoxy. It is unfair of me to ask you for your understanding of something that I understand all too well. And that it is me who must present my ideas in a way that you can understand. And that I must do it in a way that presumes the least amount of knowledge of neoclassical economics on your part. So forgive me if I go too far in the other direction. I am not intentionally insulting your knowledge of these things. I am trying to establish common ground on which to present my arguments.
The idea of diminishing marginal productivity is at the very core of neoclassical economics. It is included in everything. But nothing in the neoclassical economics set of theories is as dependent on it as the idea of supply and demand setting prices and wages. Since this is a thread about the minimum wage I will switch gears ever so slightly and talk about supply and demand setting wages. But be aware that the same holds for prices.
The idea of diminishing marginal productivity is the idea that at some point the amount of product produced by adding a unit of resources will start to diminish. In other words hiring additional workers will increase the production by a set amount for each new hire up to a certain number. After that the amount of increased production from each new hire will decrease. In fact, the extra production from each new hire will be less than the extra production from the next to last new hire.
The net result is that the number of workers that the firm is willing to hire depends on the going rate of the wage for the workers hired. It makes no sense to hire someone for $10 an hour if they only increase production by $9.50 an hour. That a company to maximize profit will keep hiring $10 an hour workers until the last hire's added product is $10 an hour at which point they will stop hiring. This added product is called the marginal product in econospeak, and it is called the law of diminishing marginal productivity as a result. Most of the time it is just referred to as marginal productivity or even marginal production or marginal product. It is a way for economists to make a simple idea obscure, so that only economists understand it.
It is this argument that is applied against the minimum wage, that if the wage is increased then some of the existing workers have to be laid off because the wage has been pushed above the marginal productivity of those last workers hired. It is this behind the often repeated phrase that "when the price of something goes up people buy less of it." It is not because the price went up by the theory, but that the cost, the wage, went up because of some non-market force, the law increasing the minimum wage in our case, and forced the layoff of X number of workers because the wage is now above the marginal productivity of the last X number of workers hired.
And what does this have to do with the setting of prices and wages by supply and demand? Because in spite of your protests to the contrary, the theory of the free market doesn't allow cost plus pricing or cost plus pricing to set a floor for the prices set by supply and demand. But it isn't your failing, it is a indication that something is wrong with the neoclassical theory of prices and wages set by supply and demand. There is no allowance in the theory for cost plus pricing. The theory is that supply and demand set the prices and the wages, period. And yet you realize based on your own experience that in the real world most prices are cost plus and producers can't operate for long at a loss. Neither are taken into account in the theories supporting the free market setting prices and wages by supply and demand.
Back to marginal productivity. You probably know enough to realize that this concept is wrong too. In fact, the question of whether such marginal products exist in the real world is solely an empirical question. And the empirical answer is no, they generally don't exist. Studies of actual manufacturing industries are unanimous in finding that worker productivity is constant for the personnel hired. That it is not diminished for the last employees hired as marginal productivity says. And you probably already knew this.
But see what this does to the argument against the minimum wage. If the productivity of the workers employed is the same then it would be stupid for the owner to lay off workers when the wage is forced up. The owner by doing so would not only be giving up the profit lost to the increase in the wages, they also would be giving up the profits from the additional units that the laid off workers would have produced. The best option would be to continue to produce the number of units that they can sell, just like before the wage increase and to just accept the lower profits on each unit sold due to the increased wages. Any other option results in less overall profit. There is no reason for the owners to buy less labor because the price goes up.
In fairness to neoclassical economists I have to tell you that they have known about the flaws in marginal productivity since pretty much about the time that it was proposed a couple of hundred years ago or so. But it keeps popping up because it is taught in introductory economics courses, the ubiquitous "Econ 101" that we are always hearing about. Neoclassical economists in fact explain the problem with the minimum wage using a more sophisticated and equally wrong theory involving the trade off between labor costs and capital investment. You have read a version of it here simplified as "if you raise the minimum wage more jobs will be lost to automation."
This theory has also been throughly investigated both theoretically and empirically and has been proven to be every bit as wrong as marginal productivity. If you can bear the pain Google "Cambridge Capital Controversy." The net result of it was that Paul Samuelson admitted that the neoclassical capital theory had been completely "debunked," a completely delightful word, leaving heterodox economists everywhere to use the verb "debunking" when exposing the frailties of modern neoclassical economic theories, which is quite often.
There is hardly a supporting theory for the self-regulating, self-organizing free market with wages and prices set by supply and demand that hasn't been thoroughly debunked. I don't know of any. And yet the idea of the "free market" lives on, the Emperor without any clothes, refusing to die the death that it so richly deserves.
And no, I haven't turned the neoclassical economics theories into cartoonish strawmen to make them easier to tear down. They really are that cartoonish on their own.
And no, we are not talking about the productivity of individuals. If X number of employees produced Y number of products and they were sold to produce the maximum amount of profit before the wage goes up, after the wage goes up the same number of employees X will still produce Y products that can be sold to produce the maximum amount of profit, it will just be less profit than before.
I will get to the rest of your post later. The above has taken hours for me to get through.