I don't think that at all, I think it's stupid as fuck to say that humans should follow the same "Laws of Nature" that wildebeest and artichokes do. Of course we're in differerent circumstances. That's why I think your entire line of reasoning is dumb as shit.
what line of reasoning are you even talking about? try, for once in your posting history, to actually respond to what a person has said and not whatever elaborate fantasy you've concocted to make yourself feel smugly superior.
i'm willing to guess that we could spend the next 5 days posting back and forth about it and you would never get close to even understanding what i was saying in my first response here, but since i'm the sort inclined towards intellectual fappery i'll give it a try just to amuse myself:
with limited exceptions (especially at this point in human history) very few societies (and their subsequent laws) occupy geographic regions that were not obtained through the conquest and subjugation of a pre-existing populace.
land ownership and legal systems have been implemented since then, but nearly all of those laws and legal frameworks were built upon a paradigm that was originally established through violent conquest, and the entire point of those laws was to try to limit the amount of violent conquest that would happen in the future.
as such, there is not really a starting point for which one can argue a legal justification for land ownership that didn't start with conquest, so your original question can't really have an answer because it's abstract to the point of being purely theoretical.
So we are, or aren't, beholden to honor wolf laws? You're not being consistent here.
i'm being completely consistent, you're just demonstrating once again that you have a severe lack of reading comprehension.
let me try to spell this out for your reeeeally slowly using small words:
once upon a time, natural law was all that existed.
as humans developmed and modern civilization started to emerge, abstract notions began to slowly integrate with natural law.
eventually, humans (mostly) moved away from operating on pure instinctive psychology and started operating by cognition, and yet the world we lived in upon which our cognition could be used was still built on principles derived from natural law.
so the answer to the original question of if there is a legal framework for the right of conquest is: no, not really, because the right of conquest exists prior to the concept of legality - the best you could ever hope for is some after-the-fact rationalization for it.
Or do you know something I don't?
based on your posting history here i'd have to say you've done nothing but give evidence that you know incredibly little, so i'd have to assume the answer to your question here is yes.