Gospel said:
I'll keep it simple. By time warp to move the goal post I was addressing you're preemptive attempt to defend your own analogy; which IMO, you had to warp (there goes that word again) in order to fit your argument.
I cannot understand that, I'm afraid. This is a communications problem. I'm trying, but I'm going to ask you to explain the charge in some other way. These are the difficulties I find:
First, I do not understand what the assertion between the semi-colon "By time warp to move the goal post I was addressing you're preemptive attempt to defend your own analogy" means. I try, but I cannot understand it. More specifically, what does "By time warp to move the goal post I was addressing" mean? How am I warping time? It sounds like something from a sci-fi story. I just do not get what you're saying here.
Second, I do understand you accuse me of moving a goal post, and I know I have not done so because I understand the content of my posts.
Third, after the semicolon you continue with "which IMO, you had to warp (there goes that word again) in order to fit your argument.": in that sentence, "you had to warp" modifies "which", and earlier you said "By time warp", so you appear to be saying that in order to fit my argument, I had to warp time. That is puzzling to me. I do not understand what you are saying, if that is what you meant. Alternatively, you might be trying to say that I am warping my analogy, not time. But what would it mean to
warp an analogy? To misconstrue it? It sounds bad because of the "warp" word, but it does not give me any specifics as to your charge. I do know, however, that my argumentation was proper. I know that because I read the exchange and I realize there is nothing wrong with my argumentation. And I certainly did not misconstrue my own analogy. But in order to defend it more precisely against your charge, I would need to understand what your charge actually is, which I do not.
Gospel said:
It is indeed the same, both individuals have choices, whether they are agreeable options or not is another discussion.
What is indeed the same?
I'm afraid I do not understand that, either.
Gospel said:
The reason why Churches have exemptions is to protect the freedom of religion. Individuals have the same access and it is not the government's fault when faith-based organizations &/or other individuals make said option suck.
Now I do understand that part of your post, so I can reply to it precisely. Here is my reply:
First, the US constitution protects freedom of religion even of those who do not adhere to any church. It is freedom of religion, not freedom of religion provided that you are adhere to a church.
Second, the US constitution also protects the freedom of religion of those who do adhere to a church, but are engaging in an activity not related to their church - e.g., a part of their personal religion not officially covered by their church, or covered by it but which they carry out outside a church.
Imagine if the government told people 'sure, you may pray, as long as you do it in your church'. That would be a clear violation of freedom of religion. It would even be a clear violation of the freedom of religion of those who adhere to a church.
Now, if the government told them 'sure, you are allowed to refrain from asserting support for cause X when you engage in your business activity, but only if your business is done in your local church', that would be a clear violation of church/state separation, but also a very clear violation of freedom of
speech. On that note:
Third, the US constitution protects freedom of speech independently of freedom of religion. Those are two different freedoms.