fast
Contributor
I think this might be kinda divergent, but since you turned to this lane of traffic, let's role with it.Wait, I'm thinking more in lines of government subsidies whereby money from group A is helping pay for the needs of group B because not splitting the cost amongst everybody fails to decrease the per person expense to members of group B.
The question is: Did Group B have the same opportunity to gain wealth as Group A?
Is there a level playing field?
If we look at a concrete example, in the US, and everywhere, it is far easier to use capital to gain wealth than to use labor. Returns from capital exceed returns from personal labor.
And a person can be a member of Group A from birth and through no effort of their own. As long as they have the luck to be born to the right parents.
In the face of social inequities unrelated to personal effort should the government let some suffer simply because they were unlucky?
Why does opportunity matter? Let's say households of group B make on average $15,000 less a year than Group A because of an uneven playing field generations ago. Okay, so there's a repercussion such that group B would not be as disadvantaged had it not been from some earlier unlevel playing field. Do we have some moral obligation to adjust the playing field from wrongs of days gone by just because everyone didn't start at the same place?---let alone try to right wrongs by financially harming those that were lucky?
I don't begrudge success, earned or otherwise.
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