Doesn't change anything. Blockade is still an act of war even if you don't recognize the country you are blockading.
Egypt regarded the Zionists as bandits and the State of Israel as an illegal, unwelcome presence in the region. It had no treaties with the Zionists and had no obligation to treat Israeli ships any better than unregistered pirate vessels.
That's not the way it works.
Then explain how it works.
Let's suppose the Aryan Nation declares Northern Idaho an independent state. Show us the international laws, agreements, accords, etc. that would require Canada to allow them to ship their goods on the Kootenai River in British Columbia even if Canada doesn't recognize it as a legitimate State.
Don't forget to show your work and provide citations.
Also, please explain why these same laws, agreements, accords, etc. don't apply to Israel when it comes to the
State of Palestine.
1) Those weapons are aimed at civilians.
Prove it.
Prove that they weren't aimed at the nearby IFD troops. Heck, prove that those kites could be aimed at all.
Look at the results--civilian property burned, no military casualties. Pretty clear what the aim was, to the extent they can be aimed.
That's not proof they weren't aimed at military resources. It doesn't even count as evidence.
In other words, you have no rebuttal.
That was my honest reaction. I laughed out loud. You blithely state that mid-20th century was "back when nations tended to respond to such major theft with military action" and are completely oblivious how that undermines every objection you have ever raised to the Arab nations response to the Zionist theft of land in Palestine.
Zionists stole an entire country. They carried out a major theft with military action. They drove hapless civilians into Gaza, Jordan, Syria, Lebanon, and the Sinai. But you don't have a problem with that. No, you're chapped the Egyptians seized control of an Egyptian company administering an Egyptian waterway with Egyptian territory on both sides of it, and *gasp* nationalized it so that it would be fully under the control of the Egyptian government.
So when the Israelis, British, and French tried to seize the Sinai and the Suez Canal, a major theft indeed, you agree the Egyptians had the right to respond with military action?
You continue to assume that the Palestinians owned Israel. Where's that ownership? What nation did they ever have?
After the partition got held up by those empowered to make it.
Great Britain was charged with administering the region on behalf of its citizens while they organized their own governments after the defeat of the Ottomans. I'd ask you to cite what part of the Mandate you think gave Britain the right to 'give' over half of Palestine to non-Palestinians but
1) I already know you haven't researched it, and
2) I'd rather focus on the issue of the Suez Canal and how much control a nation has over its territorial waters. I think you're bullshitting but you might know something about it that I don't, so I'm interested in seeing what you've got.
Israel declared it's existence in accordance with the partition plan.
Not true, and you know it.
The Jewish Agency formulated and implemented plans to seize much more than the Partition Plan allotted to the proposed Jewish State. Plan Dalet was only one of them, and it was implemented
before the Israel's Declaration of Independence in order to maximize the territory being claimed. You
know this, Loren.
The Arabs couldn't stand losing conquered land and attacked.
Well, that was back when nations tended to respond to such major theft with military action, so there's that.
As for the Suez canal--nationalization is simply another word for grand theft. At that time the world tended to respond to such actions with invasion.
Apparently you didn't read the articles linked in this thread. And you still don't see how your argument for military action is an endorsement of the Arab nations response to the grand theft that was the founding of Israel.