He presented his argument, with data that can be examined and challenged, and instead of making some sort of counter argument (which I presume wouldn't be hard to do), you just call him a racist. I'm afraid he is the one who looks more reasonable here.
For example, one could point out that here
Now, how many more blacks die at the hands of police? About 3 per million individuals per year for blacks and 1 per million per year for whites, a 3 to 1 rate compared to whites. Now remember that violence crime arrest ratio? Matches almost exactly.
Data for deaths at hands of police by race here:
http://blogs.channel4.com/factcheck/factcheck-black-americans-killed-police/19423
the data being relied upon is nowhere near complete and relies on non-required self-reporting from law enforcement agencies.
BJS: Arrest Related Deaths
Participation in the Arrest-Related Deaths program is voluntary, meaning neither law enforcement agencies nor states are required to submit ARD data to BJS.
So while what is being reported may be correct (and I'm not saying it is correct) based on the facts at hand but the facts on hand are hardly anywhere near complete.
Also, on
page 15 of the ARD report there's Appendix Table 2 which identifies 15 states that did not report anything for a number of years during the reporting period.
If the ARD is comparable to the FBI's Uniform Crime Reports program, which it seems to be since the number of annual deaths reported by the ARD and the UCR are almost identical:
http://www.washingtonpost.com/opini...78ee00-2a26-11e4-8593-da634b334390_story.html
In November 2011, the Bureau of Justice Statistics published figures on “arrest-related deaths” from 2003 through 2009, which did include information on the races and ethnicities of the deceased, as well as broad categorization of circumstances surrounding each case. The annual average of homicides attributable to police, 422, is consistent with the FBI reports.
Then we have a case of only 4.4% (750 out of 17,000) of law enforcement agencies even bothering to report.
http://www.usatoday.com/story/news/nation/2014/08/14/police-killings-data/14060357/
About 750 agencies contribute to the database, a fraction of the 17,000 law enforcement agencies in the United States.
So how any meaningful conclusions can be drawn from this pittance of data is beyond me.
I bolded the key distinct points that each independently support the key claim of the OP that violent crime rate difference more than account for (and are even larger) than difference in the rates of being shot by the cops.
The vast majority of those 17,000 agencies have zero deaths and are not the type of agencies even relevant to the issue of cop shootings. Agencies comprised of cops investigating reported crimes or patrolling for suspected crimes on the streets account for about 5%-10% of all "law-enforcement agencies". The rest are things like the FDA, Office of the Inspector General in the Dept of Education, Treasury Inspector for Tax Administration, and then "police" agencies that have nothing to do with street crime - shootings of suspects by cops relationships in question and rarely make any arrests at all, such as the "Library of Congress Police", the "USPS police", etc.. Then there are military police which are also a whole different ball of wax within a completely different context. Even among State agencies, "law enforcement agencies include things like the Department of Transportation, Commercial Vehicle Enforcement, or "agencies" comprised entirely of a single pencil pusher and maybe their secretary like "County Constable", etc..
Every shooting making headlines and being reacted to are by the small % of law enforcement agencies that directly deal with local communities, meaning the local and state police, and on rarer occasion the FBI or ATF. They only make up about 5%-10% of those 17,000 agencies, but are doing nearly all the shooting of civilians, and data from only them is really what is needed for the most valid data relevant to the issue at hand. The BJS report includes those type of relevant agencies.
The fact that difference agencies, from bjs, to FBI, to the CDC, employ varied data collection methods and reach highly similar estimates supports the validity of these numbers and that while not exact, are rather close approximations. This is a basic principle of showing measurement validity.
Larger samples are likely to produce smaller rather than larger differences in rate of deaths. As a matter of basic sampling probability, smaller samples usually inflate the difference in any aggregate stat between two groups. For example, in a room of 100 people, if you want to know the difference in height between males and females, if you only use one randomly picked person of each gender, they are likely to differ in height by more than the true avg difference of all the people.
3:1 is actually much smaller than the ratio predicted if cops were reacting to legit deadly threats. The OP referred to a 3:1 ratio in overall violent crime,.but includes things like "simple assault" which can be just threat of violence or two guys in a bar fight. Since deadly threat is what cops should be reacting to, it makes more sense to look at rates of committed deadly crime, namely homicides where the ratio is 8:1 in the rates among blacks compared to whites.
IOW, even if the shootings by cops data was extremely biased in underestimating the size of the black:white ratio, and the true ratio was almost 3 times as large as the current data shows, it would still be highly coherent with what is expected by cops reacting non-racistly to deadly threats they encounter.
In addition, there is the data I posted in another thread showing that blacks are many many times more likely to shoot at cops, and in fact, the ration of how often blacks are shot relative to how often they shoot at cops is lower than that same ratio for whites. IOW, if you shoot at the cops, you are much more likely to be shot and killed by the cops if you are white than if you are black.