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Trump's Executive Order Calls for Concentration Camps for Undocumented Immigrants

So the government can simply take land without compensation?

Yes. Congress can pass an act to take any citizens land with no compensation whatsoever. It is then up to the citizen to sue the government for compensation. As we are currently under the thumb of Don Cheeto Mussolini, and his party has control of both houses of Congress, I will not be surprised if this exact scenario plays out when some land owner on the border decides to "negotiate" with Prima Donald. He should also have the Supreme Court stacked in his favor by then, so suing Putin's Puppet government likely won't help much either.

Why should the US pass laws on taking land when they exist already and are established in case law (precedent)?

Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.
 
So the government can simply take land without compensation?

Yes. Congress can pass an act to take any citizens land with no compensation whatsoever. It is then up to the citizen to sue the government for compensation. As we are currently under the thumb of Don Cheeto Mussolini, and his party has control of both houses of Congress, I will not be surprised if this exact scenario plays out when some land owner on the border decides to "negotiate" with Prima Donald. He should also have the Supreme Court stacked in his favor by then, so suing Putin's Puppet government likely won't help much either.

Why should the US pass laws on taking land when they exist already and are established in case law (precedent)?

Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?
 
So the government can simply take land without compensation?

Yes. Congress can pass an act to take any citizens land with no compensation whatsoever. It is then up to the citizen to sue the government for compensation. As we are currently under the thumb of Don Cheeto Mussolini, and his party has control of both houses of Congress, I will not be surprised if this exact scenario plays out when some land owner on the border decides to "negotiate" with Prima Donald. He should also have the Supreme Court stacked in his favor by then, so suing Putin's Puppet government likely won't help much either.

Why should the US pass laws on taking land when they exist already and are established in case law (precedent)?

Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?

Please try to read for comprehension. Since you seem to be having trouble with that, I highlighted the relevant portion of my post that you failed at reading.
 
The wall would merely be an impediment to getting people or drugs across the border, not a solution. So taking people's land to build something that won't stop people or drugs from getting into the country seems like an unfair seizure.
eal
at is part of the process.
I would agree; it would reduce the flow across the border and it seems more likely there will be compensation but in a dispute the courts would have to evaluate the loss in real as possible terms.
This isn't an argument about due process, but rather the anger land owners will have.
 
So the government can simply take land without compensation?

Yes. Congress can pass an act to take any citizens land with no compensation whatsoever. It is then up to the citizen to sue the government for compensation. As we are currently under the thumb of Don Cheeto Mussolini, and his party has control of both houses of Congress, I will not be surprised if this exact scenario plays out when some land owner on the border decides to "negotiate" with Prima Donald. He should also have the Supreme Court stacked in his favor by then, so suing Putin's Puppet government likely won't help much either.

Why should the US pass laws on taking land when they exist already and are established in case law (precedent)?

Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?

Please try to read for comprehension. Since you seem to be having trouble with that, I highlighted the relevant portion of my post that you failed at reading.

My question is has he offered a deal yet? If the answer is no 'Any deal he offers them' is hypothetical. The US laws talk about a fair price for land taken over by the government. While the concept of fair price may differ between the parties it suggests the law may allow for negotiation and failing that mediation/arbitration or perhaps litigation.

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eal
at is part of the process.
I would agree; it would reduce the flow across the border and it seems more likely there will be compensation but in a dispute the courts would have to evaluate the loss in real as possible terms.
This isn't an argument about due process, but rather the anger land owners will have.

That may well be factor and would be common in such instances.
 
So the government can simply take land without compensation?

Yes. Congress can pass an act to take any citizens land with no compensation whatsoever. It is then up to the citizen to sue the government for compensation. As we are currently under the thumb of Don Cheeto Mussolini, and his party has control of both houses of Congress, I will not be surprised if this exact scenario plays out when some land owner on the border decides to "negotiate" with Prima Donald. He should also have the Supreme Court stacked in his favor by then, so suing Putin's Puppet government likely won't help much either.

Why should the US pass laws on taking land when they exist already and are established in case law (precedent)?

Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?

Please try to read for comprehension. Since you seem to be having trouble with that, I highlighted the relevant portion of my post that you failed at reading.

My question is has he offered a deal yet?

That's not the question you asked, and the one you did ask presented itself more as a leading question. The administration has yet to put together a plan to commence with the wall building, so no, imminent domain has not yet been used to facilitate building the wall.

If the answer is no 'Any deal he offers them' is hypothetical.

Well, of course it's a hypothetical, that's why it was phrased as "Any deal he offers them".

The US laws talk about a fair price for land taken over by the government. While the concept of fair price may differ between the parties it suggests the law may allow for negotiation and failing that mediation/arbitration or perhaps litigation.

This will depend on the imminent domain laws of the States in question, and those laws vary. Litigation is always an option, even when Congress passes an act to take your property, the other methods of recourse you mention may or may not apply. Why don't you put your fingers to good use for a change, and google the relevant State laws?
 
So the government can simply take land without compensation?

Yes. Congress can pass an act to take any citizens land with no compensation whatsoever. It is then up to the citizen to sue the government for compensation. As we are currently under the thumb of Don Cheeto Mussolini, and his party has control of both houses of Congress, I will not be surprised if this exact scenario plays out when some land owner on the border decides to "negotiate" with Prima Donald. He should also have the Supreme Court stacked in his favor by then, so suing Putin's Puppet government likely won't help much either.

Why should the US pass laws on taking land when they exist already and are established in case law (precedent)?

Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?

Please try to read for comprehension. Since you seem to be having trouble with that, I highlighted the relevant portion of my post that you failed at reading.

My question is has he offered a deal yet?

That's not the question you asked, and the one you did ask presented itself more as a leading question. The administration has yet to put together a plan to commence with the wall building, so no, imminent domain has not yet been used to facilitate building the wall.

If the answer is no 'Any deal he offers them' is hypothetical.

Well, of course it's a hypothetical, that's why it was phrased as "Any deal he offers them".

The US laws talk about a fair price for land taken over by the government. While the concept of fair price may differ between the parties it suggests the law may allow for negotiation and failing that mediation/arbitration or perhaps litigation.

This will depend on the imminent domain laws of the States in question, and those laws vary. Litigation is always an option, even when Congress passes an act to take your property, the other methods of recourse you mention may or may not apply. Why don't you put your fingers to good use for a change, and google the relevant State laws?

Why don't you provide the reference yourself re your last point that relate to existing laws (Case law and statute).
Bear in mind the US government has been purchasing land for hundreds of years for highways and infrastructures so there are laws in place. So it would be very surprising if there were no existing laws regarding this.
 
Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?

Please try to read for comprehension. Since you seem to be having trouble with that, I highlighted the relevant portion of my post that you failed at reading.

My question is has he offered a deal yet?

That's not the question you asked, and the one you did ask presented itself more as a leading question. The administration has yet to put together a plan to commence with the wall building, so no, imminent domain has not yet been used to facilitate building the wall.

If the answer is no 'Any deal he offers them' is hypothetical.

Well, of course it's a hypothetical, that's why it was phrased as "Any deal he offers them".

The US laws talk about a fair price for land taken over by the government. While the concept of fair price may differ between the parties it suggests the law may allow for negotiation and failing that mediation/arbitration or perhaps litigation.

This will depend on the imminent domain laws of the States in question, and those laws vary. Litigation is always an option, even when Congress passes an act to take your property, the other methods of recourse you mention may or may not apply. Why don't you put your fingers to good use for a change, and google the relevant State laws?

Why don't you provide the reference yourself re your last point that relate to existing laws (Case law and statute).

You are the one who is putting forward the argument that negotiation, mediation, and/or arbitration are available as recourse to those who may be impacted by imminent domain in those States. It is incumbent upon you to provide references supporting your argument if that is what you wish to do. I will not be doing your homework for you.
 
Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?

Please try to read for comprehension. Since you seem to be having trouble with that, I highlighted the relevant portion of my post that you failed at reading.

My question is has he offered a deal yet?

That's not the question you asked, and the one you did ask presented itself more as a leading question. The administration has yet to put together a plan to commence with the wall building, so no, imminent domain has not yet been used to facilitate building the wall.

If the answer is no 'Any deal he offers them' is hypothetical.

Well, of course it's a hypothetical, that's why it was phrased as "Any deal he offers them".

The US laws talk about a fair price for land taken over by the government. While the concept of fair price may differ between the parties it suggests the law may allow for negotiation and failing that mediation/arbitration or perhaps litigation.

This will depend on the imminent domain laws of the States in question, and those laws vary. Litigation is always an option, even when Congress passes an act to take your property, the other methods of recourse you mention may or may not apply. Why don't you put your fingers to good use for a change, and google the relevant State laws?

Why don't you provide the reference yourself re your last point that relate to existing laws (Case law and statute).

You are the one who is putting forward the argument that negotiation, mediation, and/or arbitration are available as recourse to those who may be impacted by imminent domain in those States. It is incumbent upon you to provide references supporting your argument if that is what you wish to do. I will not be doing your homework for you.

Since no one has offered any website or other source, I shall do this.
For convenience I went to FINDLAW. Throughout there is mention of fair compensation which you hear in UK Law My own feeling was that the US government doesn't just seize land or force a price.
However I don't think i will be far off if I mention that each case is looked at individually, where in a court there would also be precedent to draw upon.

Here is the reference

http://realestate.findlaw.com/land-use-laws/the-taking-of-property-for-public-use.html

Eminent domain is the power of government to take private land for public use. This power is limited by the federal Constitution and by state constitutions -- when the government does take private property for public use, it must fairly compensate the owner for the deprivation. Sometimes the operation of eminent domain is a straightforward matter, with the government providing the landowner a fair price, and the landowner yielding the property to public use. At other times, however, government and the landowner may disagree over whether a taking has occurred, and how much compensation is due.
History of "Eminent Domain"
The law of eminent domain derives from the so-called "Takings Clause" of the Fifth Amendment, which states, "[N]or shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation." The men who created the Constitution were, for the most part, landholders with a certain mistrust of government power. To protect private landholders from abuses by government, the Founders limited the government's power to take property. At that time, the government action they likely envisioned was seizure of the land and its occupation by government. As the country's population continued to grow, however, local governments began to place increasing controls on the use of land. Where landowners believed that these restrictions impeded their use of the property, or damaged its value, they began to argue that these restrictions also constituted a taking of their land requiring adequate compensation. At first, the courts were reluctant to hear these claims. Over time, however, courts began to recognize them, adding a new dimension to the law of eminent domain.
The Fifth Amendment "Takings" Clause
The "Takings" Clause of the Fifth Amendment has several important components. First, it applies only to private property. Should the government decide to change the use of some piece of public land, i.e. build a bus terminal on what had been a public park, that action would not compel the government to pay citizens who used the park. It's possible, however, that the new use might infringe the rights of neighboring landowners so much that they could sue anyway, equating the infringement of their property rights with an outright taking of their land. This process, known as an inverse condemnation proceeding, is discussed below.
The second requirement under the Fifth Amendment is that the land be taken for public use. This limitation prevents government officials from taking private land for their own purposes. For example, a member of Congress could not take the home of a private citizen for his or her own use under eminent domain. Sometimes, however, courts have upheld takings that ultimately resulted in a private party possessing the land. This has occurred, for example, to allow expansion of an auto plant felt to be beneficial to the local economy, and in instances of urban renewal, where a new neighborhood goes up in place of an old and dilapidated one.
"Just" Compensation
Finally, the Fifth Amendment requires just compensation. Fair compensation is typically determined using the market value of the land, that is, the price for which the landowner could reasonably expect to sell the land to some other buyer. What the land is worth depends on many things, including the size of the property and the buildings, crops, or timber upon the land. For permanent takings, courts use one of several methods to determine market value. Where the government's use of or encroachment upon the property is of limited duration or scope, the calculation of value may be trickier.
The Eminent Domain Process
In the classic case of eminent domain, the government determines that it needs certain privately owned land to create some public benefit, such as construction of a new highway. The government may offer the landowner a price to which he or she agrees, or it might initiate what is called a condemnation proceeding, when they cannot agree on value. The property owner has a right to notice of the government's decision and an opportunity to respond, and to just compensation for the land taken. The government pays the landowner, the landowner leaves the property, and the government builds the road.


My pre emptive point would be that any dispute would most likely be as to what a fair price is.
 
Since no one has offered any website or other source, I shall do this.

Don't put yourself out, or anything.

For convenience I went to FINDLAW. Throughout there is mention of fair compensation which you hear in UK Law My own feeling was that the US government doesn't just seize land or force a price.
However I don't think i will be far off if I mention that each case is looked at individually, where in a court there would also be precedent to draw upon.

Here is the reference

http://realestate.findlaw.com/land-use-laws/the-taking-of-property-for-public-use.html

Eminent domain is the power of government to take private land for public use. This power is limited by the federal Constitution and by state constitutions -- when the government does take private property for public use, it must fairly compensate the owner for the deprivation. Sometimes the operation of eminent domain is a straightforward matter, with the government providing the landowner a fair price, and the landowner yielding the property to public use. At other times, however, government and the landowner may disagree over whether a taking has occurred, and how much compensation is due.
History of "Eminent Domain"
The law of eminent domain derives from the so-called "Takings Clause" of the Fifth Amendment, which states, "[N]or shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation." The men who created the Constitution were, for the most part, landholders with a certain mistrust of government power. To protect private landholders from abuses by government, the Founders limited the government's power to take property. At that time, the government action they likely envisioned was seizure of the land and its occupation by government. As the country's population continued to grow, however, local governments began to place increasing controls on the use of land. Where landowners believed that these restrictions impeded their use of the property, or damaged its value, they began to argue that these restrictions also constituted a taking of their land requiring adequate compensation. At first, the courts were reluctant to hear these claims. Over time, however, courts began to recognize them, adding a new dimension to the law of eminent domain.
The Fifth Amendment "Takings" Clause
The "Takings" Clause of the Fifth Amendment has several important components. First, it applies only to private property. Should the government decide to change the use of some piece of public land, i.e. build a bus terminal on what had been a public park, that action would not compel the government to pay citizens who used the park. It's possible, however, that the new use might infringe the rights of neighboring landowners so much that they could sue anyway, equating the infringement of their property rights with an outright taking of their land. This process, known as an inverse condemnation proceeding, is discussed below.
The second requirement under the Fifth Amendment is that the land be taken for public use. This limitation prevents government officials from taking private land for their own purposes. For example, a member of Congress could not take the home of a private citizen for his or her own use under eminent domain. Sometimes, however, courts have upheld takings that ultimately resulted in a private party possessing the land. This has occurred, for example, to allow expansion of an auto plant felt to be beneficial to the local economy, and in instances of urban renewal, where a new neighborhood goes up in place of an old and dilapidated one.
"Just" Compensation
Finally, the Fifth Amendment requires just compensation. Fair compensation is typically determined using the market value of the land, that is, the price for which the landowner could reasonably expect to sell the land to some other buyer. What the land is worth depends on many things, including the size of the property and the buildings, crops, or timber upon the land. For permanent takings, courts use one of several methods to determine market value. Where the government's use of or encroachment upon the property is of limited duration or scope, the calculation of value may be trickier.
The Eminent Domain Process
In the classic case of eminent domain, the government determines that it needs certain privately owned land to create some public benefit, such as construction of a new highway. The government may offer the landowner a price to which he or she agrees, or it might initiate what is called a condemnation proceeding, when they cannot agree on value. The property owner has a right to notice of the government's decision and an opportunity to respond, and to just compensation for the land taken. The government pays the landowner, the landowner leaves the property, and the government builds the road.


My pre emptive point would be that any dispute would most likely be as to what a fair price is.

So, the only thing you have proven is that they would have recourse through the courts. Something I have already agreed with you on, and I am pretty sure I even pointed that out in the post to which you originally responded.

Nice try, though, at least you did your own homework.
 
Don't put yourself out, or anything.

So, the only thing you have proven is that they would have recourse through the courts. Something I have already agreed with you on, and I am pretty sure I even pointed that out in the post to which you originally responded.

Nice try, though, at least you did your own homework.


Part of WP's ignorance is of the work-arounds available to any government entity that wants to seize something.

"Today, over 400 federal laws and countless state laws authorize the seizure and forfeiture of personal property, homes, cash and valuables for a broad range of crimes.
One peculiarity of civil forfeiture: The procedure targets property, not people, so no criminal charges or convictions are required to permanently strip someone of her property. Instead, in most states and at the federal level, the government only needs to demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence—that is, that it is slightly more likely than not—that the property was used in, or is the result of, a criminal act."



IOW, if they wanted a Texas ranch all that is needed is to find one tiny marijuana plant growing anywhere on it, and bingo - It's theirs. Even if they planted the plant that was "found". There are other measures as well, having to do with such canards as "national security" that enable all manner of horrific conduct relating to seizing property.
 
So the government can simply take land without compensation?

Yes. Congress can pass an act to take any citizens land with no compensation whatsoever. It is then up to the citizen to sue the government for compensation. As we are currently under the thumb of Don Cheeto Mussolini, and his party has control of both houses of Congress, I will not be surprised if this exact scenario plays out when some land owner on the border decides to "negotiate" with Prima Donald. He should also have the Supreme Court stacked in his favor by then, so suing Putin's Puppet government likely won't help much either.

Why should the US pass laws on taking land when they exist already and are established in case law (precedent)?

Because the person in charge of the US is a narcissistic wannabe dictator who cannot abide anyone who doesn't roll over on his command. Any deal he offers them for their land is simply the best, just ask him, he will tell you, so anyone who does not take the deal exactly as offered will have to face his wrath, and that of Congress, which shows no signs of willingness to stand up to the bully.

What deal has he offered to the land owners?

Please try to read for comprehension. Since you seem to be having trouble with that, I highlighted the relevant portion of my post that you failed at reading.

My question is has he offered a deal yet?

That's not the question you asked, and the one you did ask presented itself more as a leading question. The administration has yet to put together a plan to commence with the wall building, so no, imminent domain has not yet been used to facilitate building the wall.

If the answer is no 'Any deal he offers them' is hypothetical.

Well, of course it's a hypothetical, that's why it was phrased as "Any deal he offers them".

The US laws talk about a fair price for land taken over by the government. While the concept of fair price may differ between the parties it suggests the law may allow for negotiation and failing that mediation/arbitration or perhaps litigation.

This will depend on the imminent domain laws of the States in question, and those laws vary. Litigation is always an option, even when Congress passes an act to take your property, the other methods of recourse you mention may or may not apply. Why don't you put your fingers to good use for a change, and google the relevant State laws?

Good points. However, in such an event I think it is likely that they affected parties would best speak to an attorney. It's not simply the value of the land but the value of lost production where farming is involved
 
However, in such an event I think it is likely that they affected parties would best speak to an attorney. It's not simply the value of the land but the value of lost production where farming is involved

What's your point? That you ARE capable of learning, albeit ever so slowly?
 
Don't put yourself out, or anything.

So, the only thing you have proven is that they would have recourse through the courts. Something I have already agreed with you on, and I am pretty sure I even pointed that out in the post to which you originally responded.

Nice try, though, at least you did your own homework.


Part of WP's ignorance is of the work-arounds available to any government entity that wants to seize something.

"Today, over 400 federal laws and countless state laws authorize the seizure and forfeiture of personal property, homes, cash and valuables for a broad range of crimes.
One peculiarity of civil forfeiture: The procedure targets property, not people, so no criminal charges or convictions are required to permanently strip someone of her property. Instead, in most states and at the federal level, the government only needs to demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence—that is, that it is slightly more likely than not—that the property was used in, or is the result of, a criminal act."



IOW, if they wanted a Texas ranch all that is needed is to find one tiny marijuana plant growing anywhere on it, and bingo - It's theirs. Even if they planted the plant that was "found". There are other measures as well, having to do with such canards as "national security" that enable all manner of horrific conduct relating to seizing property.

So numerous properties with marijuana plant growing anywhere on them being seized would certainly look strange not to mention possible whistle-blowers.

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However, in such an event I think it is likely that they affected parties would best speak to an attorney. It's not simply the value of the land but the value of lost production where farming is involved

What's your point? That you ARE capable of learning, albeit ever so slowly?

I'm talking perfect legal sense which is why you don't comprehend it.
 
So numerous properties with marijuana plant growing anywhere on them being seized would certainly look strange not to mention possible whistle-blowers.

That has nothing whatsoever to do with it. The LEGAL fact remains as I described.

However, in such an event I think it is likely that they affected parties would best speak to an attorney.

Duh. Thanks for your insipid input.

I'm talking perfect legal sense which is why you don't comprehend it.

Yes, WP, you are talking perfect legal sense. Now eat your peas, and try not to dribble.

50895048.jpg
 
That has nothing whatsoever to do with it. The LEGAL fact remains as I described.

However, in such an event I think it is likely that they affected parties would best speak to an attorney.

Duh. Thanks for your insipid input.

I'm talking perfect legal sense which is why you don't comprehend it.

Yes, WP, you are talking perfect legal sense. Now eat your peas, and try not to dribble.

View attachment 9772

Study US Law which is derived from UK Law. It is very clear that the US Law prescribes just payment. However there can be disputes as to what a fair payment is. Also planting drugs in people's property would backfire. Americans know their rights and a bunch of court cases would cause this to backfire with punitive damages for not only loss of property but loss of income.

Also the laws are complex in the USA from state to state where 'black and white' laws on paper that apply irrespective of circumstances have not applied since the end of Saxon laws in the UK.

Case Law originated just after 1066. I was hoping for some wisdom from US persons but perish the thought as this hasn't happened.

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However, in such an event I think it is likely that they affected parties would best speak to an attorney. It's not simply the value of the land but the value of lost production where farming is involved

What's your point? That you ARE capable of learning, albeit ever so slowly?

I don't understand your point to a self evident answer. You clearly never studied law.
 
Case Law originated just after 1066. I was hoping for some wisdom from US persons but perish the thought as this hasn't happened.

And it has it's origin in German tribal law. However, it doesn't matter where the hell the law comes from if the executive and Congress ignore it, which was the point of this long string of arguments.
 
Case Law originated just after 1066. I was hoping for some wisdom from US persons but perish the thought as this hasn't happened.

And it has it's origin in German tribal law. However, it doesn't matter where the hell the law comes from if the executive and Congress ignore it, which was the point of this long string of arguments.

Initially Saxon Law was in place but t after 1066 all the land belonged to the King and the Landowners did with it what they pleased but paid taxes and supplied troops from time to time. Earlier I quoted sources regarding US Law.
 
And it has it's origin in German tribal law. However, it doesn't matter where the hell the law comes from if the executive and Congress ignore it, which was the point of this long string of arguments.

Initially Saxon Law was in place but t after 1066 all the land belonged to the King and the Landowners did with it what they pleased but paid taxes and supplied troops from time to time. Earlier I quoted sources regarding US Law.
No one but you cares, because everyone but you realizes that
1)it is totally irrelevant, and
2) you have no clue what you are talking about when it comes to the realities in the USA.
 
Initially Saxon Law was in place but t after 1066 all the land belonged to the King and the Landowners did with it what they pleased but paid taxes and supplied troops from time to time. Earlier I quoted sources regarding US Law.
No one but you cares, because everyone but you realizes that
1)it is totally irrelevant, and
2) you have no clue what you are talking about when it comes to the realities in the USA.

That was a reply to Nice Squirrel which is relevant
No one is saying much about realties in the US so I posted this a few posts back

ince no one has offered any website or other source, I shall do this.
For convenience I went to FINDLAW. Throughout there is mention of fair compensation which you hear in UK Law My own feeling was that the US government doesn't just seize land or force a price.
However I don't think i will be far off if I mention that each case is looked at individually, where in a court there would also be precedent to draw upon.

Here is the reference

http://realestate.findlaw.com/land-u...ublic-use.html

QUOTE: Eminent domain is the power of government to take private land for public use. This power is limited by the federal Constitution and by state constitutions -- when the government does take private property for public use, it must fairly compensate the owner for the deprivation. Sometimes the operation of eminent domain is a straightforward matter, with the government providing the landowner a fair price, and the landowner yielding the property to public use. At other times, however, government and the landowner may disagree over whether a taking has occurred, and how much compensation is due.
History of "Eminent Domain"
The law of eminent domain derives from the so-called "Takings Clause" of the Fifth Amendment, which states, "[N]or shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation." The men who created the Constitution were, for the most part, landholders with a certain mistrust of government power. To protect private landholders from abuses by government, the Founders limited the government's power to take property. At that time, the government action they likely envisioned was seizure of the land and its occupation by government. As the country's population continued to grow, however, local governments began to place increasing controls on the use of land. Where landowners believed that these restrictions impeded their use of the property, or damaged its value, they began to argue that these restrictions also constituted a taking of their land requiring adequate compensation. At first, the courts were reluctant to hear these claims. Over time, however, courts began to recognize them, adding a new dimension to the law of eminent domain.
The Fifth Amendment "Takings" Clause
The "Takings" Clause of the Fifth Amendment has several important components. First, it applies only to private property. Should the government decide to change the use of some piece of public land, i.e. build a bus terminal on what had been a public park, that action would not compel the government to pay citizens who used the park. It's possible, however, that the new use might infringe the rights of neighboring landowners so much that they could sue anyway, equating the infringement of their property rights with an outright taking of their land. This process, known as an inverse condemnation proceeding, is discussed below.
The second requirement under the Fifth Amendment is that the land be taken for public use. This limitation prevents government officials from taking private land for their own purposes. For example, a member of Congress could not take the home of a private citizen for his or her own use under eminent domain. Sometimes, however, courts have upheld takings that ultimately resulted in a private party possessing the land. This has occurred, for example, to allow expansion of an auto plant felt to be beneficial to the local economy, and in instances of urban renewal, where a new neighborhood goes up in place of an old and dilapidated one.
"Just" Compensation
Finally, the Fifth Amendment requires just compensation. Fair compensation is typically determined using the market value of the land, that is, the price for which the landowner could reasonably expect to sell the land to some other buyer. What the land is worth depends on many things, including the size of the property and the buildings, crops, or timber upon the land. For permanent takings, courts use one of several methods to determine market value. Where the government's use of or encroachment upon the property is of limited duration or scope, the calculation of value may be trickier.
The Eminent Domain Process
In the classic case of eminent domain, the government determines that it needs certain privately owned land to create some public benefit, such as construction of a new highway. The government may offer the landowner a price to which he or she agrees, or it might initiate what is called a condemnation proceeding, when they cannot agree on value. The property owner has a right to notice of the government's decision and an opportunity to respond, and to just compensation for the land taken. The government pays the landowner, the landowner leaves the property, and the government builds the road.

My pre emptive point would be that any dispute would most likely be as to what a fair price is. UNQUOTE

My quote was in response to the concept of the government seizing the land which it cannot do unless there are certain breaches in the law that warrant this.
 
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